Now what are they going to say I wonder? Maybe you shouldnta outa brung that up Larry
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I'm just repeating the Scriptures.
Now what are they going to say I wonder? Maybe you shouldnta outa brung that up Larry
Nor does it particularly bring any discredit to the typical dispensation thinking as has been shared on this thread.I would agree with our Presbyterian brethren that God predestined one called out people for Himself from before creation. That would be in keeping with the Reformed view of predestination and election.
Conflict? At the least they are strange bedfellows. I do not have a major problem with Calvinists who believe in the historic premil position (although I do not subscribe to it), but Calvinists holding to Dispensationalism's form of premillennialism has always struck me as odd. It is difficult to dissect and separate Calvinism from Covenant Theology, although some attempt to do so (i.e. John MacArthur).
There is a difference (imo) between the teaching of dispensationalism and using political/economic/social events to outline the Scriptures into dispensations.
Their is really very little difference in the typical Pre-mil thinking of today and the dispensation premillennialism. Both agree that the apostasy of the church will enlarge, both indicate that there will be a growing time of trouble and tribulation prior to the Second Coming, and both hold to a literal return and millennial reign of the saints and Christ in Jerusalem (though the historic pre-mil has the millennium as an undetermined length of time. And it is interesting that there is an assumption that when one states that they are pre-mill, they are also seen (whether or not it is true) as dispensationalists.
I have found that most Pre-mil folks also hold to some view of the rapture as ocurring before, during, or at the end of the Tribulation but before the Second Coming. Because both systems hold to taking the Scriptures as literal as possible, there is not that much disparity in the end time views.
One thing that folks need to keep in mind is that the typical modern dispensation teaching is for the most part a way to outline the Scripture eras.
Certainly, the ultra and hyper types of dispensation get into arguing just when did the gentile church begin. I personally think such discussions of that nature are fruitless.
One area that may distinguish some of the older teaching on dispensation, from that of the more modern, is the view of the church as it relates to Israel. Imo, most of the valued dispensation folks recognize that the gentile church isn't some separate entity that God established because the Jews rejected Christ. Rather, many dispensation folks (imo) acknowledge the approach of Romans 11, that the gentile believers become a part of the Jewish believers (not the national/political Israeli) until the time of the Second Coming. That the church has no distinctive national earthly residence, until the Millennium and the final estate in the New Heaven and New Earth.
On the BB, I would surmise that there are a number of members that would be in agreement with that views. But then, I am possibly wrong.
I recently (though I don't know were anymore) read where some of the new covenant thinking and dispensational thinking is being blended into a systematic approach to the Scriptures that may end up being really accurate. That more and more covenant thinkers are recognizing taking a more literal approach to Revelations presents no conflicts and actually resolves some areas of disagreement between themselves. Whether this article was factual or not, I had nor have the inclination to verify.
Most of all this post you knew. I suppose I write often for those who may be reading that do not directly participate.
Now what are they going to say I wonder? Maybe you shouldnta outa brung that up Larry
24 Which things contain an allegory: for these women are two covenants; one from mount Sinai, bearing children unto bondage, which is Hagar.
25 Now this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia and answereth to the Jerusalem that now is: for she is in bondage with her children.
26 But the Jerusalem that is above is free, which is our mother.
27 For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; Break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: For more are the children of the desolate than of her that hath the husband.
28 Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are children of promise.
29 But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, so also it is now.
Like Aaron says, this is the scripture.
I would agree with our Presbyterian brethren that God predestined one called out people for Himself from before creation. That would be in keeping with the Reformed view of predestination and election.
Of course.I am curious. Do you know the difference between Dispensational premillennialism and Historic premillennialism?
I recommend you get a hold of a book titled Early Christian Doctrines by J.N.D. Kelly. The latter part of the book does a very good job of explaining eschatology as understood during the apostolic and patristic ages.
The patristic age began with the generation that immediately followed the end of the apostolic age. During this time the early church very much believed that the Lord Jesus Christ was going return during their lifetime. They did not expect a rapture. Indeed the concept would have been foreign to them. Historic premillennialism (or Chiliasm) did, indeed, expect a literal 1000 year reign of Christ upon His soon-expected return. George Eldon Ladd expounds on this in his book A Blessed Hope.
The two forms of premillennialism do not blend together at all. While both look forward to a 1000 year literal reign of Christ, one sees the Church going through a seven year Tribulation and the other does not. This is a significant difference since Dispensationalism teaches that believers will be raptured before the Tribulation.
While it is true that all Covenants have pointed to the Redemptive Plan of God, including the Covenant of Law (which is contrasted with the promises of God to Abraham), there is no reason to bring Systematic Theology into the conversation.
Does the Bible distinguish between dispensations is the question.
Now show where Scripture teaches "the Covenant of Redemption."
I agree with the statement in large part, however, the point I would make is that this is implicit to the teaching of Scripture, not derived from an explicit statement, and that is the same way that God dealing with men through various means at various times is derived. If you make it a matter of something peculiar to a particular system of Theology, it distracts from the focus.
And the fact of the matter is that while it may be viewed as correct to day "The Noahic Covenant, Abrahamic Covenant, Davidic Covenant, and the New Covenant all operate under the auspices of the Covenant of Redemption," what we cannot say is that "the Abrahamic is the New Covenant," or "the Covenant of Law is the New Covenant," but...these are distinct Covenants which simply reveal in a progressive manner that which would be clarified when the New Covenant was established.
And I would place your statement "The Covenant of Redemption has been a continuing covenant since Genesis 3:15" as incorrect, in that from the time of the promise of the defeat of Satan in the Garden until the very last Old Testament Sacrifice was offered...there was no equitable atonement nor remission of sins as that provided through Christ.
From an eternal perspective we understand the Security of the Old Testament believer was every bit as secure as our own, but, that doesn't nullify the fact that the Old Testament Saint was demanded to offer up vicarious sacrifice for the temporary covering of sin.
And those are two distinct Eras that cannot be denied. I doubt you would ascribe Old Testament Sacrifice (both Pre and Post-Law) as removing sins on an eternal basis as Christ's does. But, if you equate the redemption from sin achieved by Christ with the redemption of men in the Old Testament, that is what you do.
Not sure how we conclude a "Covenant of Works" when Adam was never demanded to work for relationship with God. Instead, we see prohibition concerning the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. Adam did not have to "work" for that relationship, that was just the fact. Loss of that relationship cannot be equated to a true Covenant of Works, which only appears in the Covenant of Law, which was an "if/then" Covenant that stands separate from all other Covenants. Each distinct Covenant reveals the Gospel of Jesus Christ just a little more, and all of those Covenants did not require anything of man.
What was Eve required to do that her Seed would deliver the death blow to the Serpent? Nothing.
What was required of Noah to ensure God would never again judge and destroy the earth as He did in Noah's day? Nothing.
What was Abraham required to do that through him all families of the earth would be blessed? Nothing. If we attribute works to Abraham then we nullify the fact that he is accounted righteous based on faith. And faith is not an effort, it is a result.
What was David required to do that his Seed should be King? Nothing. This too was the declaration of God, not a condition of that Covenant.
Finally, what does the New Testament believer, who is inducted into relationship to God through the New Covenant...do? Nothing. The argument of the Arminian, "Well...I had to believe didn't I?" is in error, because before they believed, just as we see in every Covenant God establishes with man (even the Covenant of Law)...it is God that initiates interaction and enlightens men to His will.
This is not an understanding developed by any System of Theology...this is the clear presentation of Scripture itself.
So I invite you to discuss the Scripture, rather than Systematic Theology. This is not about sectarian division, but about what Scripture actually teaches independent of the terms coined to describe concepts in the Bible.
And while we could understand a concept of two dispensations and label them the Covenants of works and the Covenant of Redemption, because we see elements of both, at the same time it is because we see elements of both that we draw a distinction between Promise and Reality. What is provided to men under New Covenant Relationship was not provided to them under any other Covenant. We do see salvation has always been by grace through faith, but that does not mean we equate the covenants to the point where we neglect the distinctions drawn between the differing eras. Men were commanded to shed the blood of bulls and goats, now they are not. We are ministers of the New Covenant...the Prophets were not. The New Covenant was not operative then, now it is.
These distinctions lead to a proper understanding of Scripture. If it were not important to draw these distinctions...they wouldn't have been drawn.
God bless.
We believe the "church age" was the focus of Old Testament prophecy while Dispensationalists believe this present age is seldom or never mentioned in the Old Testament.
We believe the "church age" was the focus of Old Testament prophecy while Dispensationalists believe this present age is seldom or never mentioned in the Old Testament.
That's a little misleading.
Could you provide prophecy that distinctly teaches of the Age between Christ's comings?
The Church Age?
And I don't mean prophecy that we can understand in light of New Testament Revelation.
Can you show anyone that actually understood the Gospel of Jesus Christ?
Anyone?
You can't, because if you could...you nullify New Testament teaching which is clear that the Gospel was not revealed in those days.
But like to see you do this.
And by the way, where do you get your name was "dragged into this?"
God bless.
Acts 10:43 To him (Christ) give all the prophets (Old Testament Prophets) witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.