Pullleeeese! A little respect! It's REALLY hard to make this stuff up!!! Where should I start? At "quickening?" At "sanctification?" What exactly don't you understand?
Once again, I ask for scripture for your definition and receive none.
Gh --- the new covenant was given spiritually because it wasn't accepted by its "target audience," Israel. NO. This is NOT Jer 31! Israel did NOT accept it nor receive it!
If there are any dispies reading this, is this what you believe as well?
Yes, absolutely! But the first was NOT acceptable to its "target audience."
What do you mean 1st? There was no promise of a 1st and 2nd or 3rd New Covenant.
Did you notice "house of Israel/house of Judah?" That is NOT "house of the church!" Go back and look at what I said "house of David" meant.
How about we see what inspired NT writers say the house of David meant:
Act 15:14 Even as Simon has declared how God at the first visited the nations to take out of them a people for His name.
Act 15:15 And the words of the Prophets agree to this; as it is written,
Act 15:16 "After this I will return and will build again the tabernacle of David which has fallen down; and I will build again its ruins, and I will set it up,
Act 15:17 so those men who are left might seek after the Lord, and all the nations on whom My name has been called, says the Lord, who does all these things."
The context which James quotes this verse is the adding of Gentiles to the Church. James settles the argument by using these OT passages concerning the tabernacle of David to say this is what it meant.
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Where was Jewish acceptance ever a prerequisite to establishing the Kingdom???? You'll have to do better than "it appears that".
Deut 30, right? You said YOU reviewed this for me -- what did you see?
No prerequisite for establishing the Kingdom. God never said if you Pharisees believe in me then I will establish my Kingdom.
It gets to the very heart of what God knows and what His Son knows. Jesus, at His first advent, read the word just like you and me. He knew His time had come! He offered the kingdom just as prophecy in Daniel 9:24 said He would in the "69th week."
Where does it say such a thing? Especially your view of a physical 1000 year Kingdom.
Dan 9:24 Seventy weeks are decreed as to your people and as to your holy city, to finish the transgression and to make an end of sins, and to make atonement for iniquity and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the Most Holy.
What do YOU make of 9:25? "Cut off but not for Himself?"
You mean verse 26. It means He was crucified.
Incoherent on account of your naivete'. Look -- it is a "new heavens and new earth" to Isaiah because HE was expecting it for all the OT saints.
I give up on trying to get a coherent view from you on the New H&E of Is. Peter and Rev.
Read Isa 26:19-21. When he would walk out of his grave, that would be the new earth to him.
Isa 26:19 Your dead ones shall live, together with my dead body they shall arise. Awake and sing, you who dwell in the dust; for your dew is as the dew of lights, and the earth shall cast out the dead.
You’re right, and when did this occur? Read the NT:
Eph 5:14 Therefore he says, "Awake, sleeping ones! And arise from the dead, and Christ shall give you light."
It is a spiritual awakening.
unless he understood Isa 57:1 in which he "saw" the rapture.
:laugh: :laugh:
Do you see God calling Israel "sons of the sorceress?" That's Israel bowing down to A/C!
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To clarify. Your view seems to be: Peter is saying the New H&E of Isaiah must be destroyed so that the New H&E of Revelation can be ushered in. Correct?
Si!
So scripture teaches 2 separate New Heavens and Earth? Again, all dispies reading this do you agree????