Originally posted by Charles Meadows:
Bmerr,
Well you are patient and thorough - I'll give you that!
Charles,
bmerr here. Why thank you, sir. I apologize for being so long-winded at times, especially here lately. I'm having to take some pretty stout stuff for low back pain, and I may tend to ramble a bit. It's merely an effort to make myself clear. Success may vary though...
Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved" (Acts 15:1).
But does the COC not in effect say, "Except ye be baptized and join the COC, ye cannot be saved"?
To me that is about the same as Judaizing, excpet it's using a Christian legalism instead of the Torah.
No, I don't think so, although I think I see where you're coming from. Let me try and help you understand my point of view.
First, we must recognize the difference between circumcision and baptism. Simply put, circumcision originated with the Abrahamic covenant and continued into the Mosaic. It was a very Jewish thing.
You may recall that Paul refused to let Titus be compelled to be circumcised (Gal 2:3). Titus was a Gentile. For him, a Gentile, to submit to being circumcised as a way to be justified by the law, would have caused him to fall from grace (Gal 5:3,4).
But when Paul met up with Timothy (Acts 16:1-3), he "...took and circumcised him because of the Jews which were in those quarters: for they knew all that his father was a Greek."
This confused me, quite honestly. Why would Paul have one be circumcised and not the other? Fortunately, I've been given quite a few books by some good friends, a few of which are comentaries. One of those is J.W. McGarvey's "Original Commentary on Acts". He's no more perfect than any other commentator, but his explanation seemed pretty good to me. I'll give a brief exerpt from his comments.
"The connection between the law and circumcision originated in the fact that the law [of Moses - me] was given to a part of the circumcised descendants of Abraham. We say a part of his descendants, because circumcision was enjoined upon his descendants through Ishmael, through the sons of Keturah, and through Esau, as well as upon the Jews. Since, then, the law did not originate the obligation to be circumcised, the abrogation of the law could not possibly annul that obligation."
He goes on to say lots more, but it boils down to this: Timothy was a descendant of Abraham, and as such was obligated to be circumcised. Titus was not from Abraham, and thus was not under obligation to be circumcised.
Probably more than you wanted to know, but I thought it was interesting.
The other issue was baptism. Whether we like it or not, the command to be baptized for the remission of sins is in the New Testament. We can go back and forth over "eis" and what it means, but at least let's acknowledge the command, and it's origin under the NT of Jesus Christ.
So circumcision is from the fathers (John 7:22), and baptism is of Christ. So, no, I don't see them the same way.
Second (
second?!?!
), I would never ask anyone to "join the church of Christ". It's just not Scriptural. Let me explain - briefly!
In Acts 2:40-41, we read,
40 And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.
41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day
there were added unto them about three thousand souls.
Then in 2:47, we find,
"...And
the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved."
The ASV 1901 puts it like this,
"...And
the Lord added to them day by day those that were saved."
I will allow those verses to stand without what has been termed, "church of Christ spin".
Third point - legalism. I know this title is reserved for those of us who believe that man has any part whatsoever to play in his salvation. Would this title be given to men like Noah, Abraham, or Moses? The Bible testifies of each of these men that they did all that the LORD commanded them, so did they.
Is obedience legalism? What would be the difference if it's not? I'd really like your opinion on this, Charles. I'd define obedience as doing what God says, in the way God says, for the purpose God says. But in doing so, I'd often be labeled as a "legalist".
The point of Paul's "faith and not works..." is that God saves us based on His generosity and mercy, not by us fulfilling any requirements (of which baptism and church membership are these).
Is faith not a requirement? Certainly one must believe, at least. Unbelievers (those who do not fulfill the requirement of faith) will be cast into the lake of fire. Jesus said to believe on Him was the "work of God" (John 6:28-29). It's something one must
do, that is commanded by God.
That's partly how I came to the conclusion given earlier about what Paul meant by "works", that it would not rule out obedience.
Paul never would have agreed that works mean nothing. Certainly the believer WILL manifest works. But that is not what saves him/her.
That is not always the case. Do you recall the chief rulers in John 12:42-43? The text tells us that they believed on Jesus. They were convinced that He was Who He claimed to be.
But, "...they did not confess him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue".
This is a case of faith, real intellectual acknowledgement of the facts of Jesus, that did not produce works. They met the requirement of belief, but these guys were not saved.
What about a man who is shipwrecked on an island........
Charles, please. Let's not go to "hypothetical world". I really didn't expect that from you. I'll forget about it if you will.
Again, I've gone longer than I intended. Thank you for your time spent reading and responding.
In Christ,
bmerr