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that the Kjv version has same authority/infallibility as the Greek NT texts themselves?
Those who claim that the KJV is the final authority would be making the KJV a greater authority than the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.
Those who claim that the KJV is the final authority would be making the KJV a greater authority than the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.
Just exactly where are these preserved scriptures in the original languages?
I am sure many scholars would love to get a look at them.
Just exactly where are these preserved scriptures in the original languages? I am sure many scholars would love to get a look at them.
just look for the aisle in Bible store, where the TR/MT/CT Greek texts hang out in the scholar aisle!
Are you suggesting that the early English translators and the KJV translators did not have the preserved Scriptures in the original languages and that the KJV was not translated from original language texts?
Are you suggesting that the KJV translators were wrong when they maintained that the preserved Scriptures in the original languages were the proper standard and authority for the trying of all translations?
Do you think that the KJV translators were wrong to use and consult multiple varying textual sources?
In as much as the KJV (or any other translation) accurately represents the original text, they carry the same authority and trustworthiness.
You don't "think" that.................you already "know" that. But that isn't the purpose of your post. Those who DO think that are rare, few and far-between.........and they are also insane. There is, however, no one I know of on this board who believes that, so what is the relevance or purpose on this thread? It's meaningless to introduce that concept since basically no one here will defend the notion.Honestly think some KJVO folks think that God replaced the originals with the Kjv directly, as theHS inspired thetranslators to make a perfect version into English out of heaven itself!
They just wrote in English, and it inspired out!
:thumbsup: Agreed; concision, honesty and brevity....who'da thunk it!!Best answer of the thread.
They would actually be making them "equal-to"....not "greater". The position they hold is that there is 100% confidence that the KJV accurately represents what the "Originals" stated. That's all; nothing more and nothing less.Those who claim that the KJV is the final authority would be making the KJV a greater authority than the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.
that the Kjv version has same authority/infallibility as the Greek NT texts themselves?
They would actually be making them "equal-to"....not "greater". The position they hold is that there is 100% confidence that the KJV accurately represents what the "Originals" stated. That's all; nothing more and nothing less.
To then compare the two: "Originals VS. KJV" is meaningless and beside the point since the position of the KJVO's is generally that they say precisely the same thing.
That statement is only true if you presuppose that they disagree at any point (as you do)....KJVO's don't believe that's the case, so your point is non-applicable and moot. You can't super-impose your pre-supposition of the KJV's inaccuracy ONTO the back of a position which denies your premise.
The Originals will never lose their FINAL AUTHORITY(even though they no longer PHYSICALLY exist here on earth).
All we are saying, as KJVO's is, that the KJV MAINTAINS that authority.
Do you have any proof for that contention?
As do all other legitimate translations of God's Word.
They would actually be making them "equal-to"....not "greater". The position they hold is that there is 100% confidence that the KJV accurately represents what the "Originals" stated. That's all; nothing more and nothing less.
To then compare the two: "Originals VS. KJV" is meaningless and beside the point since the position of the KJVO's is generally that they say precisely the same thing.
That statement is only true if you presuppose that they disagree at any point (as you do)....KJVO's don't believe that's the case, so your point is non-applicable and moot. You can't super-impose your pre-supposition of the KJV's inaccuracy ONTO the back of a position which denies your premise.
They would actually be making them "equal-to"....not "greater". The position they hold is that there is 100% confidence that the KJV accurately represents what the "Originals" stated. That's all; nothing more and nothing less.
To then compare the two: "Originals VS. KJV" is meaningless and beside the point since the position of the KJVO's is generally that they say precisely the same thing.
That statement is only true if you presuppose that they disagree at any point (as you do)....KJVO's don't believe that's the case, so your point is non-applicable and moot. You can't super-impose your pre-supposition of the KJV's inaccuracy ONTO the back of a position which denies your premise.