And what does this have to do with my belief that the Byzantine Textform is superior?
I believe δοξα εν υψιστοις θεω και επι γης ειρηνη εν ανθρωποις ευδοκια is without error of fact. If you believe I am wrong please feel free to tell me which of the words above are wrong in the Greek. And tell my why you think they are wrong. Show me the evidence that proves they are wrong.
I believe the angels said δοξα εν υψιστοις θεω και επι γης ειρηνη εν ανθρωποις ευδοκια.
Here, Jordan, let me help you. The Greek words in question are επι γης ειρηνη εν ανθρωποις ευδοκια. Get out your Strongs and look up each word.
επι = on (Strongs 1909)
γης = land or ground, and by implication, the whole world, planet, earth. (Strongs 1093)
ειρηνη = peace, or rest, or prosperity, by implication the peacefulness of having them. (Strongs 151)
εν = in (Strongs 1722)
ανθρωποις = Humans, human-kind, humanity, people (Strongs 444)
ευδοκια = kindness, or good purpose (Strongs 2107)
So, Jordan, a literal reading would be "on earth peace in men of good purpose (or kindness)."
In fact, Jordan, all the English versions say the same thing. You just misunderstood what the KJV meant when it said "peace on earth good will toward men." It does not mean the peace was being given to (toward) the men, but rather it is saying that men of good purpose have the peace and well being of others as their philosophy of life.
Your problem of understanding is that you are unaware (probably because you pastor can't read Greek) that the last word, ευδοκια, is a noun in the genitive (case of belonging to, or what we might call a possessive), singular, feminine and goes with ειρηνη. So it says the "kindness" belongs to the men of "peace."
Jordan, peace loving people are kind people. And where does that peace come from? It comes from God, of course, so these men in question certainly have the grace (unmerited favor) of God resting on them. Colossians 3:15 And let the peace of God rule in your hearts, to the which also ye are called in one body; and be ye thankful.
Why do you bring up the NA text? We were talking about the Byzantine Textform.
Why do you bring up the NA text? We were talking about the Byzantine Textform.
And?
I believe καὶ ἐάν τις ἀφέλῃ ἀπὸ τῶν λόγων τοῦ βιβλίου τῆς προφητείας ταύτης, ἀφελεῖ ὁ Θεὸς τὸ μέρος αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τοῦ ξύλου τῆς ζωῆς καὶ ἐκ τῆς πόλεως τῆς ἁγίας, τῶν γεγραμμένων ἐν τῷ βιβλίῳ τούτῳ is without error of fact. If you disagree could you point out to me where that error is and provide the proof it is wrong.
You have, as yet, not given me an error of fact. But please, keep trying.
You have yet to explain to me what the error is and why you can prove it is an error.
It is true there may be variants in the Greek text but how does that prove an error of fact in the bible?
I am going to stop you right there and warn you not to call my honesty into question again. You will not like the result. You have not, as yet, shown me an error of fact in either the Byzantine or Alexandrian textforms. All you have done is show some variants in the English translations. And even then you failed to provide any evidence that any of them were, in fact, an error, and additionally, you failed to post any proof of your charge of error.
Jordan, let me given you a little grandfatherly advice. You cutting and pasting from a KJVO web site put up by people with no knowledge of Hebrew, Greek, Text-Critical analysis, grammar or syntax does not trump the ability to actually read the bible in the language in which it was inspired and study the manuscript evidence for over 50 years.
