Skandalon spelled "correctly" was taken and it is actually transcribed both ways.
I have never seen it transcribed as the way you spell it. I'm not saying it isn't so, but α in Greek is usually transcribed as "a," not "e." But, that the name was taken does make sense.
You do know that they referred to Christ as the Skandalon, right? Read Romans 9:32.
It is interesting that "Skandalon" does not appear in Romans 9:32. The word translated "stumbling stone" is actually πρόσκομμα λίθος (lexical forms) and not σκάνδαλον.
FYI, the whole doctrine surrounding the hardening of Israel and Christ as the stumbling stone for Israel and their receiving a "spirit of stupor" is what first helped me to realize the error of my Calvinistic beliefs. That is why I chose this name.
Equating one's self with Christ is not understood to be, well, sane.
Again, this accusation is a logical fallacy call Non sequitur, which I explained above. The questions I have presented are subjects of scholarly debate in many forums and have been for generations. The fact that you all choose to address them with Ad Homenium and non sequitur fallacies is more of a reflection of your own deficiencies than mine.
It is not a logical fallacy and it is not a non-sequitur. The questions you presented are "square-circle" type of questions in which you allow no appeal to the Biblical facts.
The Bible often presents two facts that appear to be contradictory, but are not contradictory--hence the word antinomy. For instance, in Genesis 50 we see that Joseph's brothers acted, of their own free will, in an evil way against Joseph. But, God intended the brothers' free and evil action for good--to serve His purposes.
These two things are complimentary, not at odds.
The questions you ask seek to apply human logic to solve these antinomies, all the while discounting the inherent tension that the Bible is all-too-happy to have coexisting.
So, to call into question one's belief that scripture is all-sufficient (even with the antinomies) is to say that scripture itself is not sufficient. And, in doing so, you are (perhaps) causing people to add human philosophy to explain away the intentional tension in the Bible, thereby moving them away from the proper view of scripture. So, in this way, you are causing people to stumble.
The archangel is Middle English, from Old French archangele, from Late Latin archangelus and according to research, is the eighth of the nine orders of angels in medieval angelology. And we all know that Lucifer was an archangel, but fell from his position during the Creation for giving himself the title of God.
So, read into that whatever you want but I just think it is interesting how he chose this moniker considering these facts. :smilewinkgrin:
I should have expected such impetuous childishness from you. For the record, "Lucifer" is not the only "archangel." And, had you looked at my blog, you'd have seen that I used to be a professional trumpet player--hence "the archangel."
What is more, an Archangel does God's will (though I don't do it perfectly). A stumbling block--who is not himself Christ--has only one goal: To trip persons up.
Matthew 18:7:
“Woe to the world for temptations [σκάνκαλον] to sin! For it is necessary that temptations [σκάνκαλον] come, but woe to the one by whom the temptation [σκάνκαλον] comes!
The Archangel