This has been done ad nauseum for centuries in public print. It has been done here for several years in direct response. It has been heard.
[/qb]Why would you waste these several past posts speaking only in vague generalities?
[/qb]Because I was responding in a very specific way to a very specific post.
The three accusations unanswered must theologically end Calvin's small error.
These three accusations are not "unanswered." They have been answered many many times, both here and elsewhere.
The absence of biblical references is a RED FLAG as to the validity of your propositions.
Not if you are thinking. I was not addressing things biblically. I was addressing the fallacy of your approach. You approached the topic wrongly. You made false assertions based on illegitimate premises. This is like complaining that I didn't use Scripture to answer a claim that God is a little green genie who lives in a rusty pop can. It is so flawed on its face that it doesn't need a scriptural answer.
Meanwhile, common sense readings of God's Word shows that forgiveness and pardon are extended freely to the entire (whole) world (I John 2:2). John could have said, “for the world” or “for those who would believe,” but he said “the whole world.” A normal reading will lead us to the plain understanding of the all-inclusiveness of Christ’s death.
Again, several problems. First "forgiveness and pardon aren't extended freely to the entire world." The offer is extended. The forgiveness and pardon are extended only to those who believe. Second, your understanding of 1 John 2:2 may not properly deal with teh meaning of propitiation there. If Jesus "atoned for sins" then he paid for them. The atonement is not a pile of possibility, but an act of certainty. It is an actual payment, not a pile from which payment might be made. So, under this understanding, if Jesus atoned for the sins of the entire world then all men are saved. That is universalism.
On the other hand, if you take "propitiation" as a reference to the general nature or the sufficiency of Christ's death, then you believe that Christ's death is sufficient for the sins of the whole world. Calvinists believe that.
Second, “God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not imputing their trespasses to them” (2 Cor 5:19 ). Can it legitimately be asserted that “the world” means less than all humanity? Paul could have easily said “the elect” or “those who believe,” but the inspired text simply says “the world.”
This leads to universalism. If God does not count sins against people, then there is no basis on which to send them to hell. They go to heaven. If he did that for all men without exception, then no one goes to hell; all go to heaven. Is that what you believe?
Third, it was the OT sacrificial system that required blood alone for atonement.
No one disputes that. That is not at issue.
“For this is my blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins” (Matt 26:28).
To use your own argument against you, why did he say many? He could have said "all" but chose not to. Should we assume that Christ didn't die for all since he used a different word? (You see how illegitimate that form of argumentation is??)
In contrast to His blood being shed for many, 1 Tim 2:6 says that Christ “gave Himself a ransom for all” and the immediate context (1 Tim 2:1-6) qualifies the term “all.” It refers not to all the elect, but to “all men” (2:1) and “all who are in authority” (2:2), and indicates that God desires “all men to be saved” (2:4).
Many Calvinists don't disagree with this. Some would argue that the "all" refers to "all without distinction" and base it on the context where "all men" are broken down into categories. But many Calvinists believe this verse is talking about the sufficiency of Christ's death. There is no conflict here.
See how easily scripture flows to support the Free Grace position! [thumbs]
Who disagrees with free grace? There is no other kind. Calvinists believe in free grace, and the Scriptures you have cited above don't disagree with calvinism in the least.
Yes! Because God offers a universal atonement, He is not the author of sin. We all have a free will to choose for Christ or not. Calvin is wrong.
???? What makes you think Calvinism disagrees with any of that? We believe God offers a universal atonement. We do not believe that God is the author of sin. We believe man has a free will to choose for Christ or not.
The atonement is sufficient for all men, but as the Bible teaches, it is efficient only for those who believe. It saves no one who doesn't believe. God isn't the author of sin. JohnP who by his own admission is not a typical Calvinist is about the only one here who will say that God is. John is wrong on that. Man has a free will, and becuase of sin, he will always freely choose to reject Christ.
Because God has paid for the sins of the whole world in total, He is not a capricious tyrant. Calvin is wrong.
Calvinism doesn't teach that God is capricious.
Yes! Because God has moved in Christ and desires that none perish, He is immanently related to us. Calvin is wrong.
What does "immanently" related to us mean? That doesn't make much sense. The word "immanent" has not much to do with relating.
Can one have T-U-L-I-P without the U? Not a chance. Calvin botches the other letters as well. It is just easiest to keep thumping on your weakest link.
Actually, the U is about hte easiest link because it is explicitly declared in Scripture. The others are the result of theological correlation.
Your objections here are hardly serious. They have been answered in so many forums for so long. It is amazing people still bring them up as if they are legitimate. They aren't.