TC: "Where does the Hebrew OT and the Greek NT promise a perfect English translation? And where is it stated that the KJV (which ever edition)is it?"
POR: "They don't, neither do they promise it in any other language EVER, so your premise is not only rooted in deception, but is found to be 'moot'."
Amazing admission from the KJVO side. For once I agree....
As POR stated so eloquently, the whole KJVO position is *not* supported by Scripture, and is therefore a moot point. So why then all the nonsensical discussion promulgated by KJVO advocates trying to justify an indefensible position by claiming some unstated or unclear Scriptural "support" for such a position?