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Does 2 Cor 5:19 Teach...?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by TCGreek, Sep 1, 2007.

  1. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    They had been justified? Considered without sin?
     
  2. Linda64

    Linda64 New Member

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    Justice demands the punishment of sinners. The death of Christ satisfies justice, and so reconciles God to us. This reconciliation makes God our friend, and enables him to pardon and save us.
     
  3. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    That begs the question, then why doesn't God pardon everyone? If justice for everyone has been satisfied, then what is left to punish?
     
  4. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler New Member

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    I think the point of the OP is,

    If God in Christ has reconciled the whole world, and their sins are not counted against them, isn't everybody saved?

    Unless "world" doesn't mean everybody without exception.

    Which creates problems for folks who have based their general atonement views on the belief that it does mean everybody.

    That sneaky TC is at it again.
     
  5. Linda64

    Linda64 New Member

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    God's pardon is only efficacious for whosoever will trust in the completed work of Jesus Christ on the cross.

    Romans 10:8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;

    9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

    10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

    11 For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

    12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.

    13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
     
  6. Brother Bob

    Brother Bob New Member

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    Well, the not imputing their trespasses unto them, is still totally dependant upon the "word" of reconciliation. "Word" being Jesus, seems Paul used some of your Ivy League education to tell us, that it still is dependant upon hearing the word and believing, for those sins not to be imputed. Or why would you need the "word" of reconciliation???.........:)

    If Paul had not added the "and hath committed unto us the "word" of reconciliation" then it would be universal, but there is a clause there at the end, which is hearing and believing the word, to cause this to happen. IMO

    BBob,
     
    #46 Brother Bob, Sep 2, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 2, 2007
  7. charles_creech78

    charles_creech78 New Member

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    Amen brother Bob preach it.
     
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