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Does unconditional election make God partial?

Andre

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by Scott J:
God can show or deny favor wherever, whenever, and however He wants. He doesn't answer to their standard of "fairness".
I can respect this position. Scott J is not trying to have it both ways - claiming to believe in election and also trying to avoid the unavoidable - namely that election necessarily involves partiality.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
Scott,

The point of partiality, as I understand it, is that God shows that favor for his own purposes for his own desire. It has nothing to do with man.
I don't think I disagree with you.

The arminians here assume that God cannot scripturally show partiality and those opposing them seem to have accepted this premise for debate.

My point is that they are misinterpretting these passages. Their reading creates a contradiction in scripture since God does in fact show favor toward some people over others.
 

4His_glory

New Member
Andre, I appreciate your spirit during this discussion, but I fear you are trying to understand God through logic and philosophy. Though there are some things about God that can be understood logically, God many times is a-logical, that is to say above the realm of human reasoning. Often times we limit God by not alowing Him to be God, but forcing Him to fit our logical conclusions about Him.
 

4His_glory

New Member
Originally posted by webdog:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> There is not any biblical evidence that God elects based on what he sees in certain men. All are depraved sinners, all are deserving of judgment, therefore any election to salvation is unconditional and completly of grace.
...but God DOES elect based on what He sees...their heart, their faith in Him. This is the condition for election: believe and you will be saved! There is no arbitrary election, not "mysterious" reasons for election. The Bible tells us who is "elected" to Heaven. Those who have faith in His Son! </font>[/QUOTE]Can you provide a Scirptural basis that God elects based upon what He sees in the heart? Also you are forgeting that election takes place in eternity past.

If faith were were a condition for election, then it limits God in His choice, and ceases to become His choice. In other words I can say to God "You must elect me because I have faith!"

God does not elect based upon faith, He does it purely for His glory.
 

4His_glory

New Member
Originally posted by Matt Black:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by 4His_glory:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Matt Black:
Yes, it does make God partial.

Yours in Christ

Matt
How? </font>[/QUOTE]Er...because He's choosing some people over others.

Yours in Christ

Matt
</font>[/QUOTE]No, as I said in the OP there is nothing in man that God uses to determin His choice.
 

4His_glory

New Member
Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
Scott,

The point of partiality, as I understand it, is that God shows that favor for his own purposes for his own desire. It has nothing to do with man.
You hit the nail squarely on the head there. God post.
 

Jarthur001

Active Member
Andre,

I do understand the difference in subjects that you 1st address before making your statement about oats. The real subject as you pointed out is if there is inherent reasons in us for Gods grace.

I’m would not say it is unintelligible to hold to unconditional election, but I do understand wanting to apply reason other than our lack of just not understanding the subject.

as you said....

“It is easy claim that one's selection has nothing to do with one's own characteristics or attributes. I just don't think that such a claim can be made without some kind of dramatic revision to the fundamental way we conceive of the world.”

I’m not sure I can help in this understanding but i think we get insight if you look outside of God choosing a person and look at God choice of a nation. God could have used Egypt, Lebanon, Gog, or any nation he wanted. We can not say in Israel that it was because he saw only good in them. We have example after example of his people in sin. Hosea even shows Israel as a whore in gomer where she must be bought from a slave market

In looking at the nation..

 

  In Deuteronomy 7:6,

   For you are a people holy to the LORD your God. The LORD

   your God has chosen you out of all the peoples on the face of

   the earth to be his people, his treasured possession.

****** “holy here is set apart...but ..Why the Jews?”   

Deuteronomy 7:7,

    The LORD did not set his affection on you and choose you  

    because you were more numerous than other peoples, for you

    were the fewest of all peoples.

*****Not because of greatness, but rather out of love

The Bible makes it plain that the choice of the Jewish people was a sovereign act of God.  God as the Creator of the universe has the right to choose whom he wills.  In Romans 9:21, we see that he can choose the vessels he has made, whether men or nations, for honor or for dishonor. 

Election is Gods way of sharing His love with the world. Israel was choosen for this reason and out of love but not for their good.

The sovereign choice of Israel was for God’s own redemptive purposes on earth. In his wisdom he chose a family to influence families and a nation to influence nations. God chose Israel to introduce his word to the world. This was done in Christ. 

In the fullness of time, God allowed Israel to bring forth his Messiah, in order that all nations could be blessed through him.  God’s choice bore with it a great amount of responsibility, and it has resulted in an incredible degree of suffering for the Jewish people. We too as the church carry great responsibility to share Gods love. God now lives within our earthly temple. When we share Gods love and the Holy Spirit works and opens the eyes of the sinner election's end result happens again. That end result is salvation

Because of this responsibility and suffering, there are many Jews today who would just as soon NOT be the chosen people.  The words of Tevye in the famous play, Fiddler on the Roof.  “I know, I know we are the chosen people, but once in a while can’t you choose someone else!”

Gods choice of a nation for his purpose on earth could be carried out by any nation he chooses. The jews are only special because God choose them to carry this load. You can not say it was that Israel had holy living, for we do not see this.


But now, this is what the LORD says--he who created you, O Jacob, he who formed you, O Israel: "Fear not, for I have redeemed you; I have summoned you by name; you are mine. (Isaiah 43:1).


5 Do not be afraid, for I am with you; I will bring your children from the east and gather you from the west.
6 I will say to the north, `Give them up!' and to the south, `Do not hold them back.' Bring my sons from afar and my daughters from the ends of the earth--
7 everyone who is called by my name, whom I created for my glory, whom I formed and made." (Isaiah 43:5-7).


Why did God choose them? "created for my glory". To bring Him glory as well as to share in, and ultimately, to live in His glory!


verses10-13:


10 "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me.
11 I, even I, am the LORD, and apart from me there is no savior.
12 I have revealed and saved and proclaimed--I, and not some foreign god among you. You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "that I am God.
13 Yes, and from ancient days I am he. No-one can deliver out of my hand. When I act, who can reverse it?" (Isaiah 43:10-13).


Further aspects of His choosing the Jews.
BTW.. application is the US as believes!) revealed here.

"You are my witnesses...my servant whom I have chosen..", declares the Lord. Witnesses to what? "that I am God. Yes, and from ancient days I am he. No-one can deliver out of my hand. When I act, who can reverse it?" Why did God choose Israel? Why is He calling and drawing people to Himself today? "I will be their God, and they will be my people...they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest".

Exodus 29:45-46


"Then I will dwell among the Israelites and be their God. They will know that I am the LORD their God, who brought them out of Egypt so that I might dwell among them. I am the LORD their God."

John 15:15-16

"I no longer call you servants, because a servant does not know his master's business. Instead, I have called you friends, for everything that I learned from my Father I have made known to you. You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you to go and bear fruit--fruit that will last."


Why did God choose? Why does He choose now? It all has to do with intimacy, relationship, in a word, with LOVE.


"For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.”

So to answer you...there are NO inherent reasons in us for Gods grace. Gods grace has no reasom other than his Love


In Christ...James
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Andre:
I think I know what you are saying here. And this is indeed a possibility. However, I have a number of objections.

1. If I were cynical, I might suggest that someone finding themselves without much of an argument can all too easily claim that their "opponent" (who has an argument) simply has a "defective" reasoning engine.
Yes, that is possible. But theology is a different type of debate. In theology, we are not debating from conclusions and assertions, but from inspired revelation. When God says "X," then "X" is true, regardless of whether our minds can comprehend it. Not everything in Scripture is equally clear, but there is certainly enough that is clear to answer most questions. I am not against reasoning. To the contrary, I am saying we should understand the limits of reasoning.

... How can you trust your own thoughts if I cannot trust mine?
Because of the nature of revelation. You will note that I have not argued that "the Spirit taught me," Or "God led me to believe ..." Those are invalid arguments for the precise reason you acknowledge. We are dealing with propositional statements of revealed truth to which we must conform our thinking. If your child asserted that 2+2=5, you would not let him continue. You would explain that his mind did not compute that properly. The same is true here. Revealed truth is the standard of what we should believe, not our own personal intelligibility.

3. Human history shows the incredible power of logical, careful thinking. I would be very reluctant to dismiss this human faculty in the light of so much evidence of its utility.
Exactly right, and logical thinking cannot exist consistently without submission to the revealed truth of God's word.

Human reasoning does work and we are commanded by God to use it. But we must realize its limitations and its need to be informed by Scripture. We must also realize the role of common grace that allows sinful minds to come to truth in various ways.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
This view above is very, very unbiblical. This shows God only loving us because we would some day love Him. What kinda love is that? Gods love has no condition.
I said no such thing. I only said God knows our hearts, and where our faith is. This is required from all men, and I know you agree, just not on who is enabled. This has nothing to do with God loving us because we would some day love Him. This was in response to the following statement:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
There is not any biblical evidence that God elects based on what he sees in certain men. All are depraved sinners, all are deserving of judgment, therefore any election to salvation is unconditional and completly of grace.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by 4His_glory:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by webdog:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> There is not any biblical evidence that God elects based on what he sees in certain men. All are depraved sinners, all are deserving of judgment, therefore any election to salvation is unconditional and completly of grace.
...but God DOES elect based on what He sees...their heart, their faith in Him. This is the condition for election: believe and you will be saved! There is no arbitrary election, not "mysterious" reasons for election. The Bible tells us who is "elected" to Heaven. Those who have faith in His Son! </font>[/QUOTE]Can you provide a Scirptural basis that God elects based upon what He sees in the heart? Also you are forgeting that election takes place in eternity past.

If faith were were a condition for election, then it limits God in His choice, and ceases to become His choice. In other words I can say to God "You must elect me because I have faith!"

God does not elect based upon faith, He does it purely for His glory.
</font>[/QUOTE]Romans 10:13 "whoever calls on the name of the Lord WILL be saved", not "were saved from eternity past.

I agree. If faith were a condition of election, only those with faith would be the elect. That's what the Bible tells us. To say that this limits God is false. Noone is saying "you must elect me because I have faith". This logic is like me telling you if you sing me a song, I will give you $100. After you sing the song I give you the $100 I promised, you don't tell me "you must now give me $100 because I sang your song!" That's silly. God tells us to have faith in Him. If we do, we become the "elect". That's the condition outlined in the Bible, not me.

To say God does not elect based on our faith in Him is unbiblical. It's everywhere in scripture.
 

Jarthur001

Active Member
Originally posted by webdog:
...but God DOES elect based on what He sees...their heart, their faith in Him. This is the condition for election: believe and you will be saved! There is no arbitrary election, not "mysterious" reasons for election. The Bible tells us who is "elected" to Heaven. Those who have faith in His Son!
hi ya webdog,

It sounds like you are defining election as salvation. If not, please forgive me.

Salvation is the end of what happens after election. But election pure and simple is Gods chooseing. If we place the meaning in your statement the problem sticks out.

You could then read your statement....

Having faith is the condition of salvation.

This works well. But election means "choosen by God" As in when we have elections and vote. We pick who we want. We elect.

So now if we apply the right meaning it reads like this..

Having faith is the condition for of God chooseing you.

In saying man needs faith 1st, is this not saying man chooses God 1st and then God chooses man?

If it is up to us to pick God, is election as in the bible..needed?


In Christ...James
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
To say God does not elect based on our faith in Him is unbiblical. It's everywhere in scripture.
Please cite the scriptures that plainly and specifically communicate this idea that God elects us based on our faith.

While you are at it...

Elect means "selected or picked out". How can that word apply to the order you suggest?

If it was my faith that caused God to accept me then He didn't pick me out... I picked Him out.

Elect directly implies a choice. Your proposition comes very close to non-sensical since it denies that God had a choice. He could only select us after we decided to have faith... and ostensibly could not reject us if we had faith. You have made a statement that is self-contradictory.
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Jarthur001:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by webdog:
...but God DOES elect based on what He sees...their heart, their faith in Him. This is the condition for election: believe and you will be saved! There is no arbitrary election, not "mysterious" reasons for election. The Bible tells us who is "elected" to Heaven. Those who have faith in His Son!
hi ya webdog,

It sounds like you are defining election as salvation. If not, please forgive me.

Salvation is the end of what happens after election. But election pure and simple is Gods chooseing. If we place the meaning in your statement the problem sticks out.

You could then read your statement....

Having faith is the condition of salvation.

This works well. But election means "choosen by God" As in when we have elections and vote. We pick who we want. We elect.

So now if we apply the right meaning it reads like this..

Having faith is the condition for of God chooseing you.

In saying man needs faith 1st, is this not saying man chooses God 1st and then God chooses man?

If it is up to us to pick God, is election as in the bible..needed?


In Christ...James
</font>
You stick to only one possible meaning of election, and it is based on your theology. That's fine. Based on what I think scripture says, election or the "elect" are the gentiles who were predestined to be the elect, along with the jews.

Salvation being the end result of election makes no sense, unless you have knowledge of the conditions you set forth. This is what I believe, in God's infinite foreknowledge he knew who the "elect" would be since the foundation of the world.
 

4His_glory

New Member
To say God does not elect based on our faith in Him is unbiblical. It's everywhere in scripture.
I would like to see that Scripture. If we are elect before the foundation of the world, as the Bible says believers are, then how on earth can election be based upon faith? Did we produce faith before the world began?
 

4His_glory

New Member
Salvation being the end result of election makes no sense, unless you have knowledge of the conditions you set forth. This is what I believe, in God's infinite foreknowledge he knew who the "elect" would be since the foundation of the world.
Not to salvation? Yet the Scripture says otherwise:

1Pe 1:2 elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied.

Eph 1:4-6
just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,
having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He has made us accepted in the Beloved.

You seem to reduce election to mean somthing that it does not mean. It only means to choose, the Gr. noun translated "elect" means "called out ones".

If God choose them based upon there faith, then He really did not choose them, since they had somthing to do with it.

I say that it is all of God, and that even faith is a gift from Him.
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
2 Thess 2:13 and 2 Tim 2:10 both show that election is different from salvation.

You cite Rom 10:13 as evidence of election being based on faith, but that verse doesn't even talk about election.
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
This is an unvalid objection, because there is nothing in man that determins God's choice of certain individuals to salvation. This is why it is a work of grace and purely unconditional.
The "problem is" that is NOT the definition of "impartial".

Impartiality demands that God NOT "favor the FEW over the many" for ANY reason -- not even arbitrary reasons.

This has been pointed out.

In Christ,

Bob
 

whatever

New Member
Originally posted by webdog:
Explain which situation is partial

a. I am choosing players from high school to play a pickup basketball game. The only requirement is all of the kids must have done their homework. Out of a group of 10 kids, I pick out 5 who did their homework, after only telling them the requirements. All kids did not have the same chance, even though the 5 I picked met the requirements. Am I showing any kind of partiality to the 5 I picked?
Yes, you are.

b. Same scenario. Same requirement, except instead of pulling 5 aside to tell them the requirements, I make an announcement to all 10 that they have to do their homeowork in order to play. Of the 10, only 5 do their homework, and I pick the 5 that did. All kids had the same chance, although I picked the 5 that met the requirements. Am I showing any kind of partiallity to the 5 I picked?
Yes, you are.

Of course neither of these scenarios accurately represents Calvinism.
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Calvinists argue that the perfectly arbitrary nature of God's "pure" partiality -- "pure Bias" is so arbitrary that it could not possibly "be partial".

But this is not the meaning of "impartial" AND it is an argument totally unworkable in Romans 2.

Notice that the text is NOT simply saying "God is PERFECTLY biased in that there is NOTHING about the PERSON that determines that God will favor person A OVER person B".

In fact that text makes the OPPOSITE argument.

Rom 2
5 But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,
6 who WILL RENDER TO EACH PERSON ACCORDING TO HIS DEEDS:

...
11 For there is no partiality with God.
12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
God "shows" that the issue of future justification is settled on the same basis that Christ defines in Matt 7 where HE says "Not everyone who SAYS Lord Lord will ENTER the kingdom of heaven - but he who DOES..."

The SAME picture of an impartial - all knowing God is presented both in Matt 7 and Romans 2.

See the "details".

In Christ,

Bob
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
Unconditional election is not partiality. It is just the opposite. If God elected on teh basis of man, then he would be partial to those who chose him, or were smart enough to believe, lucky enough to be born in a gospel preaching area, etc.

Think of it this way: If election depends on belief (something the Bible never says), then God would be partial to those born in 21st century America as opposed to those born in 15th century BC Africa. Those in 21st century American have a much better chance to hear the gospel.

The impartiality of God requires unconditional election.
The above is a perfect example of the "calvinized-redefinition" of impartial.

In Pastor Larry's proposal above "Partial is defined as allowing ANYTHING except your OWN bias to determine the SELECTION of the FEW over the many".

This "perfect" example of PARTIALITY is "calvinized" to be called the definition of "impartial".

How instructive.

In Christ,

Bob
 
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