Dream Interpretation?

[Gershom]

Originally posted by StefanM:
Act 2:17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

---

That's the closest I found.

My question is this: why couldn't God use dreams if he chose? Is God absolutely bound to the canon of the Bible? Could he not choose to reveal himself in other ways (not in contradiction with previous revelation, of course)?

Good scripture, StefanM.

We are living in the last days, are we not?

 

[Link]

Circuit rider wrote
**We must keep in mind that God speaks to us through his Word and that Word is complete. We do not have nor need further revelation through dreams or any other medium. Dreams are simply a function of the subconscious mind and reflect our activity and thinking patterns.**

I do not see any scriptural evidence for your position. The idea that God only speaks through the Bible contradicts scripture. The Bible clearly shows us that God spoke to prophets whose prophecies were not all recorded in scripture. Since the Bible speaks of revelations outside of itself, we know that the Bible is not the only revelation.

'Word' with a capital "W' should apply to Christ, since Christ is deity, and the Bible is not. The Bible is not a fourth member of a quadrinity.

The Bible clearly shows us that God can speak to people through dreams and give others interpretations. We see examples of this in the lives of Daniel and Joseph. The New Testament also predicts that God will pour out His Spirit in the last days and that old men will dream dreams.

 

[Marcia]

Originally posted by Link:
The idea that God only speaks through the Bible contradicts scripture. The Bible clearly shows us that God spoke to prophets whose prophecies were not all recorded in scripture. Since the Bible speaks of revelations outside of itself, we know that the Bible is not the only revelation.

'Word' with a capital "W' should apply to Christ, since Christ is deity, and the Bible is not. The Bible is not a fourth member of a quadrinity.

The Bible clearly shows us that God can speak to people through dreams and give others interpretations. We see examples of this in the lives of Daniel and Joseph. The New Testament also predicts that God will pour out His Spirit in the last days and that old men will dream dreams.

But when God did this, the canon was not complete. Also, God did it either with prophets or in unusual situations, such as events surrounding Jesus' birth.

There is no case in the Bible that I can think of where a dream is being given just for a person's private benefit -- it always had to do with the prophets, Israel, Jesus, or the church. And those dreams were recorded in the Bible so that we have the benefit of what they revealed.

 

[just-want-peace]

There is no case in the Bible that I can think of where a dream is being given just for a person's private benefit --

Surely you aren't asserting that "if it's not in Scripture, it's wrong", are you?????

This philosophy could lead to all kinds of rabbit trails---!

Joh 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

Do we need to strictly limit this verse to things that Jesus "DID"! Can we not logically infer that there is a great deal about God dealing with man that we aren't told?

Does having a dream where God speaks directly to an individual for his own good violate any of His word?

If any belief/concept/action does not contradict the written word, then why condemn it?

And please, (not that I think you, Marcia, would do this, but there are many who love to argue simply for the sake of arguing) do not retort that nowhere in scripture does God condemn chewing tobacco, or getting high on canned air, or some such nonsense---the principles are there if you are really concerned enough to check it out!

The point being that absence of any word in Scripture about any given topic does not condone OR condemn that topic.

Each subject must be examined against the teachings of Scripture to verify or deny it's validity.

 

[WallyGator]

I think we're back to the old revelation vs illumination discussion. IMHO, there is no longer direct revelation but illumination, whether it be by Holy Spirit throught The Word or by dreams, a possibility that I'm not ready to judge.

 

[Marcia]

Originally posted by just-want-peace:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />There is no case in the Bible that I can think of where a dream is being given just for a person's private benefit --

Surely you aren't asserting that "if it's not in Scripture, it's wrong", are you?????
</font>[/QUOTE]I think it's getting into tricky waters to say God is giving dreams to people. However, I said in a previous post that it's possible.

This philosophy could lead to all kinds of rabbit trails---!

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Joh 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

Do we need to strictly limit this verse to things that Jesus "DID"! Can we not logically infer that there is a great deal about God dealing with man that we aren't told?
</font>[/QUOTE]If God doesn't tell us, then there's a good reason. I see Jn 21.25 used all the time to speculate on all sorts of things and sometimes to justify them. But if scripture is silent on something, we should be careful. Maybe God doesn't include things in the Bible for a reason.

Does having a dream where God speaks directly to an individual for his own good violate any of His word?

If any belief/concept/action does not contradict the written word, then why condemn it?

Please don't put words in my mouth. I didn't condemn it. I merely said that there is no example in the Bible where God gives a dream for a person's private benefit.

The point being that absence of any word in Scripture about any given topic does not condone OR condemn that topic.

Yes, but we should keep things like this mind as well:

For in many dreams and in many words there is emptiness. Rather, fear God. Eccl 5.7

"Behold, I am against those who have prophesied false dreams," declares the LORD, "and related them and led My people astray by their falsehoods and reckless boasting; yet I did not send them or command them, nor do they furnish this people the slightest benefit," declares the LORD.
Jer. 23.32

I just don't think it's the norm nor should one spend time trying to figure out if a dream is from God. If it is, I am sure they would know it.