dwmoeller1
New Member
But what about the argument that Streadfast Fred proposes that, since the Israelites didn't drink alcohol (the shekhar of Deut 29:6) while in the wilderness, then Lev 10:9 cannot be referring to alcohol?
Two problems with this argument:
1. If this is true, then the shekhar of Num 6:3 could not refer to alcohol either. How can a person forswear what is not being used by anyone to begin with? It is not much of a vow to forswear that which is already forbidden or not being used to begin with. So maybe the prohibition against strong drink was for when they got out of the desert? Which leads me to the second point...
2. The second problem is that there is a perfectly reasonable explanation of this "contradiction". Notice that the Hebrews are also commanded to bring first fruits of their crops and orchards. Yet we know that they wandered in the desert for 40 years and ate manna and quail provided by God. Thus, during their wandering they had no crops or orchards to give first fruits from. Would we thus conclude that this command to bring the first fruits could not refer to crops and orchards but must instead refer to manna and quail? Of course not, even Steadfast Fred would agree that such a conclusion is absurd.
So why then are they given commands that don't apply to their time of wandering? Well, obviously, its because the commands are meant to be applied after their wanderings are over - when they have settled down and have crops, orchards...and alcohol. So, just as insisting that crops and orchards cannot mean crops and orchards due to their conditions while wandering would be absurd logic, so too would insisting that Deut 10:9 cannot refer to alcohol.
And thats not even touching on the fact that every translation and every Hebrew scholar would agree that Deut 10:9 refers to alcohol.
Two problems with this argument:
1. If this is true, then the shekhar of Num 6:3 could not refer to alcohol either. How can a person forswear what is not being used by anyone to begin with? It is not much of a vow to forswear that which is already forbidden or not being used to begin with. So maybe the prohibition against strong drink was for when they got out of the desert? Which leads me to the second point...
2. The second problem is that there is a perfectly reasonable explanation of this "contradiction". Notice that the Hebrews are also commanded to bring first fruits of their crops and orchards. Yet we know that they wandered in the desert for 40 years and ate manna and quail provided by God. Thus, during their wandering they had no crops or orchards to give first fruits from. Would we thus conclude that this command to bring the first fruits could not refer to crops and orchards but must instead refer to manna and quail? Of course not, even Steadfast Fred would agree that such a conclusion is absurd.
So why then are they given commands that don't apply to their time of wandering? Well, obviously, its because the commands are meant to be applied after their wanderings are over - when they have settled down and have crops, orchards...and alcohol. So, just as insisting that crops and orchards cannot mean crops and orchards due to their conditions while wandering would be absurd logic, so too would insisting that Deut 10:9 cannot refer to alcohol.
And thats not even touching on the fact that every translation and every Hebrew scholar would agree that Deut 10:9 refers to alcohol.