DW, do us all a favor. If I was to address your last post effectively I would have to write a book on multiple issues. Pick one passage of Scripture or one issue (which I thought we were looking directly at the foreknowledge of God) and I will respond to it. Since you started with the following Scripture, I will address it first. Better yet, I would hope that we could stick with the direct issue of the foreknowledge of God for just a moment. :wavey:
So as not to be accused of simply overlooking your post, or failing to possess rounded objects commonly denoted of men, or being a coward, etc. etc as others have falsely accused of me of in the recent the past, I will take one of the verses you mention and address it directly although I believe it has little if anything to do with the discussion of the foreknowledge of God. :saint:
HP: No one on this list that I know of would argue that all men, especially in our generation , have become morally depraved. Scripture asserts that all are in need of repentance. The question is, does the passage of Scripture you present here make a case for original sin. (for that is what I believe you must be referring to) I say it does not for several reasons. You are a stickler for context, so it would seem to me that you should have picked up on the clear context of this passage in the first verse which you conveniently do not mention. Here it is to get us in focus with just who the Psalmist is referring to. "The FOOL HATH SAID IN HIS HEART, There is no God. THEY ((who are ‘they??? The fools) are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none( of the subset mentioned, i,e,, the fools) that doeth good.
The point is NOT that I believe that man has not became morally depraved, or that all are not sinners, but rather that this passage is NOT establishing any notion of issues like original sin, for the Jews did NOT believe man was born in sin and rightfully so. The renowned scholar Alfred Edersheim points out clearly in “The Life and Times of Jesus Christ the Messiah” that there was simply no place whatsoever in the theology held by the Jews for any such notion as original sin. I for one believe Mr. Edersheim in his conclusion. Others have came to that conclusion as well. The notiuon of original sin was not introduced or taught in the church prior to Augustine that is clearly and justly denoted as the father of the doctrine of original sin.
David was comparing two groups of individuals in this text as he did in other texts as well, Psalm 53 for instance, where he again pits the “FOOL” in the following manner: Ps 53:3 EVERY ONE of THEM is GONE BACK (not born that way, but GONE BACK) they are altogether BECOME FILTHY; (not born filthy) there is none that doeth good, no, not one.”
David was speaking directly to those he considered as fools and was by no means making any universal acknowledgement of original sin in both Psalms, 14 as well as 53.
David uses the cliché’, “children of men” in this passage much the in the same manner he did in another passage, to point to a group of individuals unlike himself. He considered himself to be a follower of God and righteousness, and those workers of iniquity to be merely referred to as the ‘children of men.’ Listen to David as he speaks again in the same manner in yet another text. 1Sa 26:19 Now therefore, I pray thee, let my lord the king hear the words of his servant. If the LORD have stirred thee up against me, let him accept an offering: but if they be the children of men, cursed be they before the LORD; for they have driven me out this day from abiding in the inheritance of the LORD, saying, Go, serve other gods.” Note clearly that these workers of iniquity David spoken of were NOT as himself, but are those evil persons(those 'children of men') who drove him from abiding in the presence of the inheritance of the Lord.