Eternal Security the Acid test

[The Biblicist]

ALL that are given EQUAL All that Come and ALL that are Given EQUAL All that are raised up!

Hence, the promise to be raised up cannot include the lost or there would be MORE promised to be raised then given but that is not the case.


Therefore, this is a clear and explicit necessary inference of EFFECTUAL CALLING. Because ALL that are given EQUAL All that come and NONE given are lost - that is EFFECTUAL giving and EFFECTUAL coming and EFFECTUAL glorification "OF ALL" that were given.


Hence, NO MAN CAN COME except the Father draw him AND "HIM will I raise up in the last day" - Jn. 6:44

ALL GIVEN are ALL WHO COME and NONE COME but those DRAWN and ALL DRAWN will be raised up at last day EQUAL to all given shall come and shall be raised up at last day.

No Calvinism here - just plain scripture and necessary inference of what Christ explicitly states and demands.

36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

Note the negative in verse 36 versus the postive in verse 40

1. "have seen me" versus "seeth the son"
2. "and beleived not" versus "believeth on him"

Sandwiched between the negative and positive is the explanation of Christ WHY they saw and did not believe - because they were never given to him by the Father BECAUSE all the Father gives to the Son do come to the son - the both see him AND BELIEVE IN HIM.

 

[Moriah]

36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

Note the negative in verse 36 versus the postive in verse 40

1. "have seen me" versus "seeth the son"
2. "and beleived not" versus "believeth on him"

Sandwiched between the negative and positive is the explanation of Christ WHY they saw and did not believe - because they were never given to him by the Father BECAUSE all the Father gives to the Son do come to the son - the both see him AND BELIEVE IN HIM.

The Jews who did not love and obey God BEFORE Jesus came, those Jews were hardened, they were hardened so that they cannot see and believe in Jesus. Jesus came first for the lost sheep of Israel, those are the ones who loved God before Jesus came.

God hardened the rest of the Jews; He gave them over to disobedience, along with the Gentiles, so that He can have mercy on all.

Romans 11:2 For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.

The Jews who were hardened and cut off can be grafted back in, if they do not persist in unbelief.

Romans 11:30-32 30 Just as you who were at one time disobedient to God have now received mercy as a result of their disobedience, 31 so they too have now become disobedient in order that they too may now[a] receive mercy as a result of God’s mercy to you. 32 For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.

Romans 11:23 And if they do not persist in unbelief, they will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.

 

[The Biblicist]

36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

Note the negative in verse 36 versus the postive in verse 40

1. "have seen me" versus "seeth the son"
2. "and beleived not" versus "believeth on him"

Sandwiched between the negative and positive is the explanation of Christ WHY they saw and did not believe - because they were never given to him by the Father BECAUSE all the Father gives to the Son do come to the son - the both see him AND BELIEVE IN HIM.

All that the Father gave the son comes to him. There were hundreds of Jews that received his message (1 Cor. 15:6; Acts 1:15-17). All that the Father gives him, Jews and later Gentiles ALL come to him. No man can come to Christ unless the Father gives them to Christ and if he gives them to Christ they come to Christ in repentance and faith. When the gospel is preached, at the Lord's appointed time, they see and believe (1 Thes. 1:4-5).

 

[Moriah]

All that the Father gave the son comes to him.

This is when God gave His people to Jesus, they were God’s first before Jesus came to earth, then God gave them to Jesus when he had his ministry on earth. Now all must come to Jesus first before coming to God.

There were hundreds of Jews that received his message (1 Cor. 15:6; Acts 1:15-17). All that the Father gives him, Jews and later Gentiles ALL come to him. No man can come to Christ unless the Father gives them to Christ and if he gives them to Christ they come to Christ in repentance and faith.

Are you saying that the gospel does not come to people, but that people come to the gospel? The Bible says, “ And how can they preach unless they are sent? As it is written, "How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news!" See Romans 10:15, and other scriptures tells us that the gospel is to be preached to all. Mark 16:15 He said to them, "Go into all the world and preach the good news to all creation. You see how not accepting the truth about God giving those who already belonged to Him to Jesus can give you mixed up beliefs in other areas.

When the gospel is preached, at the Lord's appointed time, they see and believe (1 Thes. 1:4-5).

With your beliefs, all people who will be saved should be saved when they have heard about Jesus the first time.
There are people who are not saved until later in life. If they are already chosen and saved before they believe, then why were they not saved the first time they heard of Jesus?
You see how your beliefs are full of error.
God chooses us by the condition of our heart. God knows our hearts. God gives us His Spirit when He accepts us (Acts 15:7-8). If all are only totally depraved, then what does it matter what is in our hearts? In addition, the Bible tells us what we have to do for God to save us. You can be saved if you do what He says...believe and confess...call on the name of the Lord.

 

[Michael Wrenn]

Some people like to proof text and beat people over the head with the Bible in an effort to establish some doctrine as the only correct one. Problem with that is, almost any proof text for a doctrine can be met with another proof text that contradicts the pet doctrine.

I don't like to proof text, but just to demonstrate my point: The entire chapter of Hebrews 6 is a very good refutation of the OSAS doctrine.

As also James 2:24 refutes the "faith alone" doctrine: "You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone."

When confronted with situations such as this, the person who disbelieves the verses that refute his pet doctrine begins to wiggle and squirm like a worm in hot ashes, resorting to all types of contortions and rationalizations, trying to explain away the contradictions because to accept the plain words of scripture in these cases would unravel his theological system -- although for verses which he thinks support his system, he demands that they be taken as literally given. He is thus caught in a contradiction from which he cannot extricate himself, and so is left hanging and flapping in the wind.

Luther wanted to exclude the Book of James from the canon because it contradicted his foundational doctrine; many would like to expunge from the Bible those verses which gore their favorite doctrines.

Based on the above, there is support for the Catholic doctrine of justification, and if we took some verses on baptism literally and just as written, the Churches of Christ have basis for their belief.

So, he who proof texteth should be careful, lest he get stucketh by the sword of another's proof text.

 

[targus]

So, he who proof texteth should be careful, lest he get stucketh by the sword of another's proof text.

The author of the OP was aware of this when he started the thread with a proof text and a proclaimation that no other text was allowed to be brought into the discussion.

Given those conditions, I use the word "discussion" tongue in cheek.

 

[Michael Wrenn]

The author of the OP was aware of this when he started the thread with a proof text and a proclaimation that no other text was allowed to be brought into the discussion.

Given those conditions, I use the word "discussion" tongue in cheek.

Yes; quite so.

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

John 6:39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.

I dealt with his proof text head on in post #48, and where was the response from Biblicist? Here it is again.

HP: Because something is the 'will of God' does not necessitate its coming to pass. For instance, it is Gods will, according to Scripture, that NONE should perish, and that ALL would have eternal life..... but all will not come to repentance even when it is God's will.

2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.



Jesus said in yet another place that He indeed HAD lost one in particular, Judas.

Joh 17:12 While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.

So Biblicist tries once again to rip a proof text out of the context of God's will, and tries in vain to make it walk on all four legs in support of a context he manufactures by his own imagination. The notion of OSAS is not supported by this Scripture or any other.


And just to think that Biblicist feels the verse in the OP was one of the strongest verses in support of OSAS.

 

[The Biblicist]

This is when God gave His people to Jesus, they were God’s first before Jesus came to earth, then God gave them to Jesus when he had his ministry on earth. Now all must come to Jesus first before coming to God.

Nope, Jesus used the present tense "cometh to me"! So he is not talking about just people who came to him by faith in the gospel (Acts 10:43) before his ministry. Even before he came to earth, he was still the only way to come to the Father, they had to come to him by faith - read John 14:16 with Acts 10:43 and get your head straight with scripture. Read Acts 4:12 with acts 10:43 and get your head straight with scripture as there NEVER WAS and NEVER WILL BE any other way to be saved, to the father, but to come to Christ by faith, whether it is looking forward to the cross by faith (Acts 10:43) or looking back to the cross by faith (Heb. 12:2).

Go learn the meaning of these scriptures (Acts 10:43, Heb. 4:2, Acts 26:22-23; Acts 4:12; John 14:6) and you will discover there has only been ONE WAY to heaven from Genesis to Revelation (Mt. 7:13-14 "staight is THE WAY") and it is by coming to Christ by faith.

Are you saying that the gospel does not come to people, but that people come to the gospel?

Coming to Christ is believing in Christ and believing in Christ is embracing the gospel by repentance and faith. No man CAN COME to Christ except the Father "give...draw...given unto him" (Jn. 6:39,44,65) and all who do shall be saved and NOT ONE fail to be raised up in the Resurrection of eternal life.

With your beliefs, all people who will be saved should be saved when they have heard about Jesus the first time.

Obviously YOU CANNOT READ can you? Did you read my words "at the Lord's appointed time"????? The first time they hear the gospel may not be "at the Lord's appointed time" to bring them to Christ by faith. "At the Lord's appointed time" the gospel will not come to them by "word only but in power, and in the Holy Spirit and in much assurance" (1 Thes. 1:4-5). Any other time the gospel will only come to them in "word only." Go learn what this means.

 

[The Biblicist]

The author of the OP was aware of this when he started the thread with a proof text and a proclaimation that no other text was allowed to be brought into the discussion.

Given those conditions, I use the word "discussion" tongue in cheek.

Don't read to well do you? I refused to give a PROOF TEXT unless it can be demonstrated to be consistent by the immediate context it is found in.

That is what this OP is all about - proving or disproving that John 6:39 is being used consistently with the context.

This is precisely why I refused to play your Proof text game and that is exactly the game you guys play when you try to refute OSAS.

Prove that I am misinterpreting John 6:39 according to its IMMEDIATE CONTEXT or take your marbles and go play with someone else because I am not going to play your prooftext musical chair game.

No one, and I mean no one on this forum has yet even attempted to take this challenge. No one has attempted to take the immediate context of John 6:36-65 and show/prove/demonstrate that I have jerked John 6:39 out of context or given any contextual or grammatical evidence I am abusing this text.

If you can, then Please be my guest!

 

[The Biblicist]

Some people like to proof text and beat people over the head with the Bible in an effort to establish some doctrine as the only correct one. Problem with that is, almost any proof text for a doctrine can be met with another proof text that contradicts the pet doctrine.

I don't like to proof text, but just to demonstrate my point: The entire chapter of Hebrews 6 is a very good refutation of the OSAS doctrine.

As soon as you meet my challenge I would more than love to take up your challenge with Hebrews 6.


However, you or no one else on this forum has even attempted to take my challenge. You don't even rightly understand the challenge I made so let me spell it it out to you once more again.

I refuse to play the PROOF TEXT musical chair game with you. I am not playing any PROOF TEXT game. My challenge is prove by the immediate context (John 6:36-54) that my use of John 6:39 is wrong!

I am not jerking John 6:39 OUT OF ITS CONTEXT but demonstrating by ITS CONTEXT that I am correctly interpreting it. Your challenge is to prove BY ITS IMMEDIATE CONTEXT that I am not correctly interpreting it.

Do you understand my challenge???

I AM NOT PROOF TEXTING John 6:39 but I AM DEMONSTRATING BY ITS IMMEDIATE CONTEXT that what it says BY FACE VALUE is exactly what it means according to its context.

No one has yet taken this challenge (I really don't think you or anyone else will because it will be quite embarassing for you if you did).

 

[The Biblicist]

HP: Because something is the 'will of God' does not necessitate its coming to pass. For instance, it is Gods will, according to Scripture, that NONE should perish, and that ALL would have eternal life..... but all will not come to repentance even when it is God's will.

Don't read to well do you? First, you have not even attempted to deal with John 6:39 IN ITS CONTEXT or made any attempt to prove my interpretation of it (face value reading) is contrary to ITS IMMEDIATE CONTEXT (Jn. 6:36-65).

Second, I dealt with your flimsy objection in my OP and still you offer no response to it - just ignored it and then stated exactly what I demonstrated to be a false interpretation of "the will" of the Father IN THIS CONTEXT. Here, I will repost it from my OP


A. "The Father's will" in context does not refer to the REVEALED WILL of God but as verse 37 demonstrates it refers to the DETERMINATE WILL of God because every single one the Father gives does in fact come to Christ, whereas, the REVEALED WILL of God brings no one to Christ.

Not only does every single one the Father gives comes but "of all" that he gives NONE ARE LOST. The revealed will of God accomplishes NONE OF THESE THINGS. Only the DETERMINATE WILL of God EFFECTUALLY accomplishes these things. What are the EFFECTUAL things accomplished??? Answer: ALL given EQUALS all that come EQUALS none lost.

It is pure foolishness to even suggest that this refers to the REVEALED will of God as the REVEALED will of God actually accomplishes NOTHING! But here this "will of the Father" is EFFECTUAL in all three successive stages

1. Stage one - the Father wills to give a people
2. Stage two - the Father wills all given to come
3. Stage three - the Father wills that "OF ALL" giving/coming that NONE SHALL BE LOST

It is absurd to even suggest that this refers to the REVEALED will of God, as you have done. Every PROOF TEXT you offer deals with the REVEALED will of God.

I have dealth with "the will of my Father" according to how it is used in THIS CONTEXT. This CONTEXTUAL use is defined to be His EFFECTUAL or DETERMINATE will because EVERY THING WILLED BY THE FATHER in this context is EFFECTUALLY accomplished. The REVEALED will of God NEVER effectually accomplishes ANYTHING!

Also, you have not taken up my challenge. My challenge is to DISPROVE my use of John 6:39 BY THE IMMEDIATE CONTEXT. I am not proof texting anything. I am establishing the face reading of John 6:39 by its immediate context (Jn. 6:36-65).

I will not play the game of PROOF TEXT MUSICAL CHAIRS that every single solitary opponent of OSAS plays in their attempts to refute OSAS. I am demonstrating my text by its context and challenging anyone to prove grammatically, contextually that I my intepretation (which is the face value of what John 6:39 says) is contrary to its IMMEDIATE CONTEXT.

 

[Moriah]

HP: Because something is the 'will of God' does not necessitate its coming to pass. For instance, it is Gods will, according to Scripture, that NONE should perish, and that ALL would have eternal life..... but all will not come to repentance even when it is God's will.


Jesus said in yet another place that He indeed HAD lost one in particular, Judas.

This is an important fact that you brought up. This shows so beautifully, how much God wants us to come to Him on our own.

Consider also that Jesus prayed that Peter’s faith would not fail him, even though Jesus knew it would. We know from the scriptures that Peter’s faith DID fail him, when he denied Jesus three times.

Luke 22:32 But I have prayed for you, Simon, that your faith may not fail. And when you have turned back, strengthen your brothers."

Consider also that God desires that the wicked turn from their wickedness and be saved. We know that all the wicked do not turn, even though it is what God desires.
Ezekiel 18:23 Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?

Ezekiel 18:32 For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign LORD. Repent and live!

Ezekiel 33:11 Say to them, 'As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, O house of Israel?'

 

[DaChaser1]

This is an important fact that you brought up. This shows so beautifully, how much God wants us to come to Him on our own.

Consider also that Jesus prayed that Peter’s faith would not fail him, even though Jesus knew it would. We know from the scriptures that Peter’s faith DID fail him, when he denied Jesus three times.

Luke 22:32 But I have prayed for you, Simon, that your faith may not fail. And when you have turned back, strengthen your brothers."

Consider also that God desires that the wicked turn from their wickedness and be saved. We know that all the wicked do not turn, even though it is what God desires.
Ezekiel 18:23 Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?

Ezekiel 18:32 For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign LORD. Repent and live!

Ezekiel 33:11 Say to them, 'As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, O house of Israel?'

Did the Death of jesus actually pay for the sins of all peoples, or just was payment towards God on behalf of His own peoples?

 

[Moriah]

Did the Death of jesus actually pay for the sins of all peoples, or just was payment towards God on behalf of His own peoples?

Jesus paid for the sins of all people, but we have to believe and obey to get access to this reconciliation and salvation.

Romans 5:12 through whom we have gained access by faith into this grace in which we now stand. And we rejoice in the hope of the glory of God.

 

[The Biblicist]

Did the Death of jesus actually pay for the sins of all peoples, or just was payment towards God on behalf of His own peoples?

All he is trying to do is change the subject from the OP! Why? Because he cannot prove from the immediate context of John 6:36-65 that my interpretation of John 6:39 is wrong!

If he wants to talk about the extent of the atonement then let him create his own thread for that.

He knows he cannot deal with this OP in keeping with the IMMEDIATE CONTEXTUAL terms of John 6:39 so he is forced to change the subject like the rest of these guys.

Here is the deal. If they cannot take the IMMEDIATE context of John 6:39 and prove that I am misapplying it, then, they really cannot do it with any context BECAUSE the scripture is consistent and the HOly Spirit is not the author of confusion.

Hence, what they will do is run as fast as their little feet can carry them to their PROOF TEXTING out of context method instead of dealing with this text in its context. Can't do it here and they won't be able to do it anywhere and the proof is that as soon as you address their proof text in its context they will simply do the same thing - run and jump to another proof text outside the context of their first proof text.I am not going to play their Proof text game of musical chairs.

 

[Moriah]

All he is trying to do is change the subject from the OP! Why? Because he cannot prove from the immediate context of John 6:36-65 that my interpretation of John 6:39 is wrong!

If he wants to talk about the extent of the atonement then let him create his own thread for that.

He knows he cannot deal with this OP in keeping with the IMMEDIATE CONTEXTUAL terms of John 6:39 so he is forced to change the subject like the rest of these guys.

Here is the deal. If they cannot take the IMMEDIATE context of John 6:39 and prove that I am misapplying it, then, they really cannot do it with any context BECAUSE the scripture is consistent and the HOly Spirit is not the author of confusion.

Hence, what they will do is run as fast as their little feet can carry them to their PROOF TEXTING out of context method instead of dealing with this text in its context. Can't do it here and they won't be able to do it anywhere and the proof is that as soon as you address their proof text in its context they will simply do the same thing - run and jump to another proof text outside the context of their first proof text.I am not going to play their Proof text game of musical chairs.

Nonsense is what you speak.

I have already shown you that you do not understand John 6:39. When Jesus was on earth, HE WAS GIVEN THOSE WHO WENT TO GOD FIRST, BUT NOW, EVERYONE WHO WANTS TO GO TO GOD, THEY MUST GO THROUGH JESUS FIRST.

 

[savedbymercy]

Shall not come into condemnation !

If one could be Truly saved, a Believer in Christ, and then somehow be lost and condemned for sin, Then Jesus lied his tail off here Jn 5:24

Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

 

[convicted1]

Shall not come into condemnation !

If one could be Truly saved, a Believer in Christ, and then somehow be lost and condemned for sin, Then Jesus lied his tail off here Jn 5:24

Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

And Jesus ain't no liar....good post...:thumbs::thumbs::thumbs::thumbs:

 

[DHK]

Why do you have such a hard time following what people say? I have already told you that I believe people can have eternal security! That does not mean that no one can draw back! DO YOU NOT CARE THAT GOD SAYS NOW THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH: BUT IF ANY MAN DRAW BACK, MY SOUL SHALL HAVE NO PLEASURE IN HIM? That is what God says! Do you think God is saying that for no reason?
Now the just shall live by faith: but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. Hebrews 10:38.

You are taking Scripture out of context here.
Paul is writing to Jewish Christians (hence the title of the book--Hebrews). Many of them were thinking of returning to Judaism. Throughout the book he contrasts Judaism to Christianity. This was a conjecture. IF they should go back to Judaism. They wouldn't, but Paul was putting forth a "what if you would go back to the Temple worship" scenario, which happened to be tempting to them at that time. In application, is it tempting for you to go back to the Temple (non-existent) to worship??

Why do you not answer questions! Tell us who these people are. Is the people who are in 2 Peter 1:10 able to fall or not? What are they falling from?!

see 2 Peter 1:10. Therefore, my brothers, be all the more eager to make your calling and election sure. For if you do these things, you will never fall,

It was a reassurance. They would never fall. They would continue in these things. That is what a Christian does. This verse is an evidence of eternal security. They were not able to fall, for the things that they continued in were evidence that they were saved. Peter was reassuring them not only of their salvation, but the security they had in Christ. They all continued in those very basic things. Paul lists certain virtues in verses 5-7: faith, virtue, knowledge, temperance, patience, godliness, brotherly kindness, and love.
--Then he gives two options.
2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
--In verse 4, before he lists these great and precious promises he tells us that these belong to those that are partakers of the divine nature. IOW, theses are characteristics of believers only.

At the end of listing them, he says this:
2 Peter 1:8-9 For if these things be in you, and abound, they make you that ye shall neither be barren nor unfruitful in the knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ. But he that lacketh these things is blind, and cannot see afar off, and hath forgotten that he was purged from his old sins.
--If you have them you are fruitful; if you don't have them, you are blind and can't see, and have not been purged from your sins--you are still unsaved.
Thus it is not a matter of falling away. It is a matter of being saved in the first place.

Tell us, what do the lamp and the oil signify? Did they not have light and oil at one time? What happened to it?

Matthew 25:8 And the foolish said unto the wise, Give us of your oil; for our lamps are gone out.

It is simply a parable telling us to be prepared for the Lord's coming.

Tell us, what does it mean to fall from grace?

Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace. Galatians 5:4. Here Paul tells us we could fall from grace.

Pay attention to the context. Paul wrote this epistle to those that had been influenced by Judaizers--those that demanded one keep the law and be circumcised in order to be saved. Some of them were swayed by that teaching. Paul says if you think this teaching is true you have fallen from grace. They hadn't for they had been saved by grace. You can't have both.

That this hadn't happened is evident by what Paul said a few verses later:
Galatians 5:10 I have confidence in you through the Lord, that ye will be none otherwise minded: but he that troubleth you shall bear his judgment, whosoever he be.

Galatians 5:18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.
--He reassures them that they are not under the law.

Answer us, what does it mean to not drift away?

We must pay more careful attention, therefore, to what we have heard, so that we do not drift away. Hebrews 2:1. Here Paul tells us how to not drift away.

Again you are quoting from Hebrews, a unique situation. He was warning Jewish Christians what would happen if they would happen to go back to Temple worship.
Hebrews 2:1 Therefore we ought to give the more earnest heed to the things which we have heard, lest at any time we should let them slip.
--You have a weak translation. Give heed to the word of God, and don't let the things that you have heard slip away. There are many people today who forget the doctrine that they have learned in the past. This is not uncommon.

What does it mean not to draw back?

Now the just shall live by faith: but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. Hebrews 10:38. Here Jesus talks about not to draw back.

Again, you are quoting from Hebrews, a unique situation. They were thinking of going back to Temple worship. They were Christian Jews. This is what would have happened but didn't.
How do we know? What is the next verse:
Hebrews 10:39 But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.
--Believers don't draw back.

Tell us what it means to make many defiled.

Looking diligently lest any man fail of the grace of God; lest any root of bitterness springing up trouble you, and thereby many be defiled; Hebrews 12:15. Here Paul warns that one can cause trouble and cause many to be defiled.

Why so many verses from the Book of Hebrews? Explain that.
Again, it is a unique situation. They were thinking of going back to Temple Worship. Are you?
Bitterness can defile a person. You seem to show bitterness to some on the board, which would indicate that you have been defiled spiritually. Could this be true? Just asking.

Tell us, was Jesus ever formed in them? What happened that they needed him formed in them AGAIN?

My dear children, for whom I am again in the pains of childbirth until Christ is formed in you, Galatians 4:19. The Galatians needed Paul to go through again what he had already done with them before, and that is to form Christ in them again.

Galatians 4:20-21 I desire to be present with you now, and to change my voice; for I stand in doubt of you. Tell me, ye that desire to be under the law, do ye not hear the law?
--They had been so influenced by these Judaizers that they thought they had to keep the law once again; that they were under the law. Paul had to spend time with them again teaching them that they had liberty under grace. With Christ is grace. That is what the expression means. In no way had they lost their salvation.

If they escaped living in error, what happened to them now?

Read 2 Peter 2:18, wicked men can even mouth empty, boastful words, and, by appealings to the lustful desires of sinful human nature, they can even entice people who are just escaping living in error.

This is a description of false teachers who were never saved in the first place. They will do their best to entice others into their error.

Answer us, why is it dreadful for God's people to fall into the hands of the living God?

Hebrews 10:30, 31 For we know him who said, "It is mine to avenge; I will repay," and again, "The Lord will judge his people." It is a dreadful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

More Scripture from Hebrews. The contrast is given between the OT and the NT. If you think that OT law was harsh, think what it will be like to stand before God as your judge with all the NT light that you have been given and are responsible for. We also need to take heed to that. We will be accountable at the Judgment Seat of Christ for the works done in this life. We have great light compared to the OT saints.

YOU NEED TO START ANSWERING QUESTIONS, INSTEAD OF ASKING THE SAME QUESTIONS THAT I ALREADY GAVE ANSWERS TO.

Jesus saved me. I obey Jesus’ words, and I take all the warnings. Do you believe Jesus’ warnings? Yes or no?

Not everyone takes God’s warnings seriously, they may think they cannot do anything to harm their salvation, as you teach them!

I take Jesus at His word. No one or anything can do any harm to me as far as my salvation is concerned. No one is able to pluck me out of the hand of Christ.

No one is able to pluck me out of my Father’s hand. That goes for people like you who have tried to tell me Jesus did not save me. YOU cannot pluck me out of my Father’s hand, no matter how much you desire to.
God does not force us to love Him and stay with Him!

God gave us a great gift of salvation. He is not going to take it away.
God made me a child of His family. He is not going to disown me.

Not everyone is like me, now are they? You do not believe a person can fall from grace, even though the scriptures say a person can.

The Scripture doesn't teach they can. That is only your interpretation.

You do not believe a person can be dead to sin, even though the scriptures tell us to be.

The Scripture does tell us to be dead to sin; but you have a wrong concept of that verse.

So you tell me, can you fall from grace? If you do not take Jesus' words seriously, do you think that you could be harming your salvation?

No, I will never fall from grace. Yes, I take the words of Christ seriously.