An NIV thread has taken a turn to the KJV. I though I would make a thread concerning the level of accuracy between the KJV and NIV.
Now here are some ground rules:
1) It will not be legitimate to say in 1611 it meant this or that. No, both translations, in order to access their level of accuracy must be judged on the basis of the contemporary meaning of words and phrases. A good translation must be understood by the ordinary ploughboy as Tyndale said. The average unchurched individual of today has to understand it.
You say that's unfair? I say it is perfectly fair. Let's stack em' up side-by-side. And may the best translation win.
2) The meaning of the "accuracy" needs to be agreed upon.
Per Merriam-Webster
2.b : degree of conformity of a measure to a standard or a true value
This may end up in a debate between various translational methods.
It is faithful to the original as well as communicating to the target audience?
You can come up with your personal view of accuracy. But the bottom line is : Would a typical unchurched American adult understand the meaning of the text?
I know ultimately unless the Holy Spirit illuminates the mind of a person true understanding will not be achieved.
But I mean if a chapter from both versions would be read and a little test was given as to how much a person absorbed -- which translation would come out on top?
_________________________________________________________________________________
So start off with pairing off verses or portions of verses and make your case.
Now here are some ground rules:
1) It will not be legitimate to say in 1611 it meant this or that. No, both translations, in order to access their level of accuracy must be judged on the basis of the contemporary meaning of words and phrases. A good translation must be understood by the ordinary ploughboy as Tyndale said. The average unchurched individual of today has to understand it.
You say that's unfair? I say it is perfectly fair. Let's stack em' up side-by-side. And may the best translation win.
2) The meaning of the "accuracy" needs to be agreed upon.
Per Merriam-Webster
2.b : degree of conformity of a measure to a standard or a true value
This may end up in a debate between various translational methods.
It is faithful to the original as well as communicating to the target audience?
You can come up with your personal view of accuracy. But the bottom line is : Would a typical unchurched American adult understand the meaning of the text?
I know ultimately unless the Holy Spirit illuminates the mind of a person true understanding will not be achieved.
But I mean if a chapter from both versions would be read and a little test was given as to how much a person absorbed -- which translation would come out on top?
_________________________________________________________________________________
So start off with pairing off verses or portions of verses and make your case.