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Foreknowledge, Foreknown, Predestined

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by ReformedBaptist, Sep 6, 2007.

  1. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    He's quoting Eph 2:5 not v. 8, so RB is correct in his quoting.
     
  2. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Which proves Dr Roger's point. You may have received and lost your regeneration numerous times before you had faith.

    And of course Eph 2:5 supports both of us. We were "dead" when we were revived. It could be no other way. However, that does NOT preclude our believing, repenting, and receiving before being regenerated. Those acts do NOT regenerate us -- God does.

    Let me know exactly why you are saying we cannot believe, repent, and receive prior to regeneration, pls.

    skypair
     
  3. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    I know that , but it is verse 8 that explains verse 5. You can not seperate them.

    Paul expounds on what what he means :
    This is about salvation NOT regeneration. If you just take vs 5 and run with it then yes, I see the arguement but verse 6 brings the light which reveals an improper assumption.

    If it is speaking of regeneration and not of salvation then before we are ever saved, we have ALREADY be made to sit together with Christ in heavenly places.
    So there is no need for salvation since my position is ALREADY established. This is why verse 7 says this SALVATION (not regeneration) shows froth His richs and glory, ext... for the ages to come. Verse 8 goes on to explain HOW salvation comes By Grace and that is by 'Faith".

    (now if you hold that regeneration IS salvation but not yet yeilded to faith, then you have another biblical problem which states salvation is BY Faith and not that salvation is confirmed through faith)
     
    #203 Allan, Sep 16, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 16, 2007
  4. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    RB is more than capable of giving his own rebutall, but I'll venture this:

    1. There's no one text that gives us a complete view of ordo salutis, so we must take several texts into consideration before make a proper conclusion.

    2. For example, Eph. 2:8 is a more condensed for of Rom 8:29-30 and so on.

    3. As someone who adheres to the doctrines of grace, I do believe regeneration precedes faith and oftentimes, and the mention of just one of the links in the chaing of ordo salutis assumes the others.

    4. For example, Paul is fond of using "calling" or "called," which points to the whole salvation reality and experience.

    5. So when Paul mentions "made alive with Christ" and so on, Paul has the whole ordo salutis in mind.
     
  5. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    Your going to have to explain this. I do not follow.

    I see no need for comment here.

    I am saying that man left in his natural, unregenerate state, apart from the influence of God upon him, cannot and will not (of his own free moral agency) repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.
     
  6. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    And I will grant you that, so there is no real but an 'assumed' order. So why be absolutely dogmatic regarding it?

    But that was my point, which you illistrated well with Paul. Yet we also must 'assume' Paul is speaking of the whole order of Salvation, or maybe Paul is speaking of the completeness OF salvation without regard to an order but finished work (thus verses 6, 7, and 10). Yes, it 'can' regard both the beginning AND the End or just the finished product regardless of the 'beginning'.
    I will though go along the whole concept of salvation just for agurments sakes but remind you that it has to do with Salvation and NOT regeneration "before" faith since it speaks of the salvation establishing us IN Christ.
     
  7. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    You can't use THOSE words. That is almost word for word my line I use in debating. :laugh:
    * with the exception of unregenerate of course *
     
  8. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    1. Well, if we didn't have other texts to consider, I think you'll agree that we'll be lost at sea.

    2. How can one who is "dead in sins" (v.1) come to faith in Christ? V. 4 answers the question.

    3. But what does it mean for a person "dead in sin" to be made alive in Christ? What is involved?
     
  9. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    Glad your almost a Calvinist. :laugh: :laugh:

    A distinctly Evangelical Arminian position is that of the Methodist Episcopal Church and of the United Methodist Church is:

    "The condition of man after the fall of Adam is such that he cannot turn and prepare himself, by his own natural strength and works, to faith, and calling upon God; wherefore we have no power to do good works, pleasant and acceptable to God, without the grace of God by Christ preventing us, that we may have a good will, and working with us, when we have that good will." Article VIII - Of Free Will


    From this I can see that my Evangelical Arminian brethren agree with Calvinists that God exerts an influence upon the minds of men which (at least) leads in a great number of instances to regeneration and that their free agency is left free.

    What I contend that God does do this unto a CERTAINTY. God can and does exert His influences that certainly lead to regeneration and conversion in every case where it is put forth.

    In neither is the free agency of man being taught to be destroyed. To say so, either of the Methodist article or the Calvinist doctrine of effectual grace, it to assert it without a shred of evidence.
     
  10. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    That should put things into perspective, I hope. :thumbs:
     
  11. reformedbeliever

    reformedbeliever New Member

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    He is the best Calvinist-non Calvinist on the bb. :laugh:
     
  12. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    Hey! I used to have that title. I guess I've been replaced. :tear:
     
  13. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    You can't be replaced Amy, I was just allowed to enter into your presense for a short time. :laugh:
     
    #213 Allan, Sep 16, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 17, 2007
  14. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    Thanks Allan. You're alright! :wavey:
     
  15. Allan

    Allan Active Member

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    Does this mean your almost not. :eek: :laugh: (j/k)

    I'm sorry but you have used this term 'Evangelical' on me before and since it is used in both good and bad cases (according to the person using it), please explain YOUR meaning of its usage :)

    I have no problem contending for the fact that God must exert His influence upon the minds and hearts of men, for without it NO MAN can nor will come to Christ in his depraved state.

    I agree that God excerting His influence upon man will certainly lead to those whom He foreknew (or if you like elected) will be His own.

    But what about those that Paul speaks to stating "Harden not your hearts". How can Paul knowing the certainty of Gods influence imply that we can harden anything against the thing we can not resist? And yet Paul make that statement very plain as a plea not to be like the Jews did under Moses leadership.

    Or where Paul states "I beseech thee, be ye reconciled" Why plead for 'them' to be reconciled with God if they are already reconciled with Him? And other states which 'seem' to show not to show your contention of Grace being 'irresistable'.

    IMO - I believe it is a certainty that God will bring unto Himself by His means those whom He foreknew but and yet by the sames means and with the same intent extends his offer to others who will not come to God (thus the universal usage of whosoever, if any man thirst, ext..), whom He also foreknew would not be His as they will reject His truth which you also agree they 'willing' do.

    Which is why I state it is not Doctrine which are at issue but the mechanics of those Doctrines to which we both adhere.
     
    #215 Allan, Sep 17, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 17, 2007
  16. ReformedBaptist

    ReformedBaptist Well-Known Member

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    I mean it in the best possible light, Gospel. It means to me that I regard you as saved and orthodox in the faith. By arminian I only use as a matter of convience to make the difference between a calvinist. The term non-calvinist is too general.


    Amen.


    Amen.

    In the same breath, within the scope of your own theology, how can God make the offer of salvation to those whom He foreknew would not accept it? The "harden not your heart" falls within the scope of the universal, general call to salvation.

    The means are not destroyed by the certainty of the end. Irresistable is a poor use of languge to fit an acronymn. Effectual would be better.

    Indeed, God will bring to Himself by His means those whom He foreknew. But this seems to leave out foreordained. It's not merely that God foreknew, as in knowledge. But also foreordained.

    What is surprising to me is that those who teach men are elected because God foreknew they would believe don't see the problem they pose to calvinists in their own theology. If God knew ahead of time who would believe then their belief is as certain and unchangeable as one whom could would foreordain to salvation. Our use of foreknowledge deals with God's infallible knowledge. He is all-knowing. Open theists realizing this have gone into heresy and impugned the foreknowledge of God. Calvinists contend against the idea because to them it is contrary to Scripture when we learn the "why" of GOd's election being His own good purpose (foreordination) and not because of something He foresaw in man.
     
  17. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    RB, what do mean by the boldened part?

    God offers salvation universally to "all" but will not draw "all" in order that they might be saved?

    Why offer salvation to someone who you never intend on giving it to?

    Confused.
     
  18. reformedbeliever

    reformedbeliever New Member

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    Then this might confuse you even more. Christ is the lamb slain from before the foundation of the world. Why would God give Adam and Eve a choice if He knew they would disobey Him?
     
  19. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    Some would say because God wanted His children to love Him freely, which means there must be a choice between Him and something or someone else.
     
  20. reformedbeliever

    reformedbeliever New Member

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    The only way His children (the elect) can love Him is through the miracle of regeneration. We are regenerated, born again, by His will not our own. That is true freedom.
    Those who are not the elect hate God. See John 8. They are actually children of the devil.
    The realization of the sovereign grace of God truly sets you free Amy.
     
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