I'm sorry you find it frustrating. If I were dishonest I would simply say that I agree your passage provides an answer that satisfies my question. And if that is what it takes to keep the peace here, then I am willing to do exactly that (not pretend that it clears things up, but ignore that it doesn't).What you asked was this:
Now I have shown you something (tiredness), but you now ignore this and try to change the subject.
I just don't understand why you keep agreeing with me when I post and then disagreeing when I stop.
I don't have time at present to pursue this argument as I would like, but you need to stop being so slippery; it's very frustrating!
Insofar as Joel Beeke's explanation, I also thought we were in agreement. But based on your disagreement earlier (perhaps on a thread now closed?) I am not sure we completely agree.
I believe that the Father offered His Son as an atoning offering, laying our sins on His Beloved Son. But I believe this was an active sacrifice (the Father sacrificing his Son and the Son laying down his life) through the Spirit. So I do not believe that the Spirit departed from Christ on the cross, nor do I believe that the Father "turned his back" and withdrew his actual presence (although he withdrew his loving presence, in terms of deliverance, for a time). So what Christ experienced on the cross was not what we would have experienced as a second death (unholiness, faithlessness, hopelessness, ect.) so it was not "our punishment" but "for our punishment" as it exceeded what we would have experienced (because Jesus is God). More than that, the Father was also sacrificing of himself (his beloved Son). If the Father looked on his Son as if he were a sinner, then this sacrifice is mitigated. While I thought we both agreed, it seems we agree at least in part.
Insofar as Jesus experiencing somethings in his humanity and other things in his divinity, I do think that this makes a mess of things - either by unclear language (how "nature" is defined) or as it forms types of "dispensations" within Christ himself. I have never read a passage that used such language and, as I suggested, it really does not make very much sense to me. In other words, I don't see it stated that Jesus experienced birth as man but not as God. I see Scripture to indicate that Jesus was God/man throughout. But the miracles also as man (they did not testify to the power of Jesus, but that he was sent of the Father).
And, again, I apologize for being a source of frustration, and for being "slippery" (although I do suggest that what is slippery may be some of the theories presented here).
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