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Featured Fundamental View of Faith

Discussion in 'Fundamental Baptist Forum' started by Van, May 14, 2012.

  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I do understand the Calvinist's papering over the glaring problem with artfully selected verbiage, "Christ's atonement was sufficient for all but efficient for the elect." Like saying we brought enough food for everybody but we are only going to give food to those we choose, and then take the rest with us. Twaddle pure and simple.

    I think the majority of IFB churches teach that Christ died for all mankind and almost anyone can find the narrow road that leads to life through personal faith in Christ. So our job is to spread the word and help the lost find it.
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    It beats the other viewpoint regarding the atonement, the One that holds that the death of Christ secured a "potential" salvation for ALL people, but no real satisfaction, as there is no definite death benefit provided for until one places faith in jesus!
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The premise that the false doctrine of Calvinism has anything of merit to offer is without merit. Calvinism teaches that everyone who is saved is saved by the blood of the Lamb. The non-Calvinist view also asserts that everyone who is saved is saved by the blood of the Lamb. Therefore His death provides "real satisfaction" for everyone saved. Thus the Calvinist assertion is simply yet another falsehood.

    As Squire Robertsson asserted, Christ became the propitiation or means of salvation for the the whole world, 1 John 2:2. This view seems to be shared with the majority of IFB churches.
     
  4. dcorbett

    dcorbett Active Member
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    I am IFB....I didn't even know what Calvinism was defined as until I took
    Bible classes YEARS after I was saved. I am not Calvinist, based on
    what I have been told is the definition!

    My definition of faith? Hebrews 11 has the definition....."Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen."

    Pretty simple, I think.
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    his death was sufficient in and by its nature to be atonement for all, but the all who gets benefited by it are those elected out by the father to come to His Son!
     
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not so simple. James speaks of dead faith. Would your definition demonstrate a difference between dynamic faith and dead faith? I think not.

    The issue here is not that your definition is not true, but whether or not the Bible teaches us more about faith than just in this one verse. I think so. For example a person could believe something but not from the heart. So the faith that God would credit as righteousness, Romans 4:5, would be a heart-felt commitment to Christ. Demon's believe in Christ, but are not committed to Christ.
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Talk about artful dodging. Christ died for all mankind. Does your carefully crafted statement tell us you believe Christ did not die for all mankind, but only for the elect? No. You simply side step the truth, your yes is not yes and your no is not no.
    The question is how can a disciple of Christ, striving his or her best to follow Christ, employ such double-speak?

    And remember not to rewrite scripture, all that the Father gives to the Son, comes (arrives) to the Son and will not be cast out.
     
    #67 Van, May 23, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: May 23, 2012
  8. dcorbett

    dcorbett Active Member
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    I was talking about simple faith...the kind that it takes to be saved. I don't like these total in-depth rip the scripture to pieces discussions. Faith without works is dead, yes, the Bible says that. But you have to have the faith FIRST before you can perform the works for the Lord.
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Looking at all the passages in the Bible that speak of "faith" is not a "rip the scriptures to pieces" discussion. Basing doctrine on one passage in isolation is the methodology of ripping something our of context to support a falsehood.

    Were you talking about simple faith, or one aspect of faith as described in the bible?

    I do not think the faith you described fully describes the faith God would credit as righteousness.
     
  10. Don

    Don Well-Known Member
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    I'm curious; are you looking for a "full description" of saving faith?

    My simplistic understanding of what you're saying is:
    Dead faith is that belief/faith that is without works; works being the evidence of saving faith. The kind of "faith" that the devils, and many people who profess that they believe in God have.

    Saving faith is that faith which produces works; talked about in Eph 2:8-10.

    So my confusion about your (Van's) statement is, dcorbett seems to be describing saving faith; so what more are you looking for?
     
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    To claim that the Hebrews 11 description of faith fully and accurately describes the faith God would credit as righteousness seems unsound. Both dead faith and the faith of demons would fit that definition.

    So what is "saving faith?" The answer is a faith which is credited by God as righteousness. And how does scripture describe that faith?
     
  12. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Justified by Faith

    Almost all Christians would claim to believe we were justified by faith, and perhaps quote Romans 3:28, which says we are justified by faith and not by the works of the Law.
    If pressed, many Christians would define “works of the law” as the actions we take to conform to the requirements of the Law, rather than what the “law” actually accomplishes, which is to make us aware of our sin and lead us to Christ.

    So lets back up and ask the question, justified by whose faith? Does our faith justify us? If we took a poll, would not a large group, perhaps even a majority, say our faith justifies us? But that would be a works based salvation would it not. Ah but you say faith is not a work.

    Maybe we should back up again and consider “justified by whom?” Were we justified by what we did or by what Christ did on the cross? The free gift of justification to life was provided by Christ on the cross, Romans 5:18. So it was Christ’s faithfulness, even unto death on the cross, which provided the propitiation for the whole world. So then the question becomes, how did we “receive” that gift or have that gift applied to us individually?

    So it would seem, then that our faith in Christ provides access to Christ’s free gift of justification by the grace of God. But does that too miss the mark? I think so. Would not our faith in effect “save us” then and make us the actual architect of our salvation?

    So if our placing our faith in Christ does not automatically save us, then God must credit our faith as righteousness and spiritually place us “in Christ” which saves us because in Christ we receive the justification to life provided by Christ. Wow now that is a systematic theology that fits with all scripture.
     
  13. Don

    Don Well-Known Member
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    Perhaps the way to look at this is by looking at the individual meaning of the word justified.

    For example, Romans 5:18 would read:
    ...by the righteousness of one, [the free gift came] upon men unto jutification (declared by God to be free from guilt and acceptable to Him) of life.

    Romans 3:28 would be similar:
    ...a man is justified (declared by God to be free from guilt and acceptable to Him) by faith.

    So I'm with you through your first few paragraphs; of course, the answer to "justified by whom?" is God.

    But where I start to part company with you is your last couple of paragraphs. In your last paragraph, you state that our faith is credited for righteousness and God places us in Him; absolutely correct. Where we part ways is your first sentence: "placing our faith in Christ doesn't automatically save us" because this seems to contradict scripture (specifically, Eph 2:8). The problem I see here is that instead of asking "justified by whom?", the question should be "faith in what?"
     
  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Pitchback:
     
  15. Don

    Don Well-Known Member
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    Sorry, not catching the pitchback, because it doesn't answer the question -- unless you're implying that "our faith" means "faith in ourselves," or "my faith saves me," in which case I'd have to agree with you. BUT, that requires an implicit assumption that whenever someone says "I was saved by faith," that they mean they were saved by their own faith, or worse, their faith in themselves -- to which I would say, most people don't mean that at all.

    Ask folks what they mean by "saved by faith." Faith in what? Faith that you're gonna go to heaven? Faith that there is a heaven, and there's a place for you there? Faith that, like Osteen says, we can be the best Christians we can be and get into heaven?

    Or faith in the finished work of Christ? I would point out that this faith, that Christ paid the price for us, that there is nothing we can do, that lines up with "believe and be saved," and more than adequately lines up with what you say about the faith that is credited to our account, is the faith that we should be exploring.

    And then you can take this conversation to the calvinists, and ask them why God would place such faith in them.
     
    #75 Don, May 24, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: May 24, 2012
  16. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Textus Receptus (1550)

    2:8 τῇ γὰρ χάριτί ἐστε σεσῳσμένοι διὰ τῆς πίστεως καὶ τοῦτο οὐκ ἐξ ὑμῶν θεοῦ τὸ δῶρον


    to the grace ye are ones having been saved through the faith
    and this not out of ye of God the gift


    The way this Greek interlinear is stated:

    "to the grace ye are ones having been saved through the faith"

    The only meaning, "through the faith," can have is through the faith (of someone). I believe it to be impossible for the meaning of, "through the faith." to mean through the faith of someone in someone, which is what it would have to mean if the verse was understood as, For by grace are ye saved through (your) faith.

    That is not what it says or means.

    When, grace through the faith is applied to one, let's use Paul as an example, that one is given or receives the Spirit thus setting him apart for salvation; sanctifying him from unbelief unto belief. 1 Tim 1:13 Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and injurious: but I obtained mercy, because I did [it] ignorantly in unbelief. 14 And the grace of our Lord was exceeding abundant with faith and love which is in Christ Jesus.

    That attitude was in Jesus toward Paul not in Paul toward Jesus. Paul was on his way to Damascus to imprison Christians.

    Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise (of the Spirit) by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    This is really simple. Scripture says it is our personal faith in Jesus that provides our access to the saving grace of God. Thus when God credits our faith in Christ as righteousness, He puts us spiritually in Christ, where we undergo the circumcision of Christ and arise in Christ a new creation.

    And we have been all through this several times, it is Christ's faithfulness, even to death on the cross, that provides the propitiation or means of salvation. So Gal 3:22 says Jesus Christ's faithfulness provided salvation to them that put their personal faith in Christ, as determined by God.

    And oh yes, when the question concerning saving faith is asked, "faith in what" and the answer is given "faith in Jesus Christ" that does answer the question.

    And Percho, Ephesians 2:8 says "for by grace you are saved through faith." So our faith in Christ provides the basis God uses to put us spiritually in Christ. This is well stated in 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
     
    #77 Van, May 25, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: May 25, 2012
  18. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler New Member

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    You Greek scholars, help me out.

    Could "by faith OF Jesus Christ" be translated "by faith IN Jesus Christ..."?

    I ask this because it seems to me that Jesus does not need to have faith. He is the creator of the universe. By him all things were made. He spoke them into existence. If you omnipotent, you don't need faith.
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Think that the Apostolic message in regards to this was to have those who heard the Gospek place faith in the messiah jesus, as THAT act is what our faith is to be rooted into, the very prson and work of the Son of God!

    Would see it as being the faithfulness of the Messiah yeshua is what my faith would be grounded into!
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I am not a scholar of any sort, but let me repeat what I said in my prior post:

    In the Greek, no connector between faith and Jesus and Christ appears in the text. Therefore the translators inserted the connector (of in the KJV, "in" in the NASB) to convey what they thought was the idea. However, modern Greek scholars have noticed that when all three words are "genitive" the idea is that the faith belongs to the person, hence faith of Jesus.

    However, as you noted, Christ's faith is not an issue. Therefore the third and I believe correct way to translate this construction of the Greek is "Jesus Christ's faithfulness" or to parallel the KJV, the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.

    But it is really important not to miss the last part of Galatians 3:22, which is that the promise is being given through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ to those who believe. Salvation is through Jesus Christ who humbled himself faithfully, even unto death on the cross to those who believe in Him.
     
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