Well, actually if you read on in Romans 10 it appears Paul is arguing that Israel has already heard, which is the reason I bring up the OT 'God fearers.' They may have some semblance of understanding for the coming Messiah, but they don't necessarily know the "NAME" or fully understand the cross/atonement as we know it today...yet God credits righteousness to their account.
The dis-connect here is rather simple and I hope we can understand one another....Obviously, you are correct, in that the "NAME" of Jesus Christ was not critical in the OT schema. There is no doubt that Abraham (for instance) did not in any way profess some allegiance to some theoretical personage known as this "Jesus Christ" personage, and Abraham and Isaac both were unfamiliar with this "cross" idea...and all of this what-not....But I think you are sort of equivocating in a way.... We are decidedly responsible for what revelation God has given us in accordance with what particular dispensation in which we live... I believe that in reference to the "Abrahamic Covenant" one was responsible to accept what measure of "details" that Abraham understood. We are sort of arguing details here:
I might try to put it this way...and my point is to try to get you to divorce yourself from equivocating between OT believers and NT believers, as they exist in a different level of dispensation...
EVERY man is responsible to know, and accept and profess what knowledge of God as has been appropriate for their specific time-frame, and their specific "Dispensation" <---Yes, I am using that word in the "Scofield" sense... which is apparently taboo around here....I believe that there is a
perfect positive correlation between all of those in any given OT level of revelation, or, put differently, any OT dispensation, between those who accept what level of given faith is required in the OT sense, and what would be available in the NT sense....
Abraham did NOT, know of, or accept "Jesus Christ" as his "personal Lord and Saviour"...but...lemme put it this way: IF HE HAD LIVED IN THIS DISPENSATION HE
WOULD HAVE. The Bible holds all men responsible for what level of "revelation" God has given/provided, and ALL things in the OT invariably pointed to Christ...
I think you are sort of missing the issue with confusing the OT issue with the NT issue...They are not separate. They are one and the same. OT believers were responsible for accepting and believing what level of revelation existed at that time, and NT believers for what level of revelation exists now....
Given these premises...I will be "quippy" with my responses to the rest of your questions:
I don't see how, as that is the foundation for why I even bring up this question. If there is not a legal impediment where God's justice would be comprised then couldn't God justify whoever he wanted to based on ANY criteria He established?
He established those criterion "Dispensation-by-Dispensation" and, in (IMO) with what level of understanding he knew that man was capable of comprehending....Secretly...I think there is some reality to the thought that man "evolves" socially (like the God-haters think) but, man has learned over time to "grow-into" their faith, and God has always "met" man where he was, and only in accordance with his capacity to understand.
He could choose to save all redheads (which is beyond the agent's control) or He could choose to save only those who never cut their hair (which is within the agent's control). So, the question becomes whether or not God has always, and always will only choose to save those who hear the actual NAME of Jesus and believe....or if God, who is just and reasonable, COULD discern the heart of man in response to whatever level of revelation He has and either (1) credit righteousness to his account based upon that response, or (2) send more light (compel a missionary to go, send a dream, etc)
Precisely MY point...We agree 100% here: This is the key point of your post I hold to:
So, the question becomes whether or not God has always, and always will only choose to save those who hear the actual NAME of Jesus and believe....or if God, who is just and reasonable, COULD discern the heart of man in response to whatever level of revelation He has
What level of "revelation" he has is UNAFFECTED by whether he be an OT believer or a NT believer....Can we not agree that there are millions of OT believers who have never even heard of this "Moses" person...or this "Law" stuff that he came up with? Abel and Enoch were "Preachers of Righteousness" LONG before any Jewish Law or otherwise...but, they were responsible to respond to all revelation as provided....The distinctions don't even rest upon "OT" or "NT" believers, but in
numerous different "dispensations" Pre-flood, and post-flood, and pre-Abraham, and post-Abraham, and pre-Moses, and Post-Moses...
ad nauseum. Man has been responsible to respond to what level of Revelation that God has given him....and I believe that in this era...God has required that man accept Jesus Christ, and by name, and
NTHER...by which he might be saved...That being said, I do not think that there is any person who accepts what level of revelation God has provided them who WOULD NOT understand and accept the culmination of the ultimate ideal of Jesus Christ...
I sum up this way....Abraham was justified by faith...and with the level and amount of revelation he had...However,... If, as a NT Christian missionary, you were to explain Jesus Christ to him...(and if he could understand it) he would readily accept, without reservation. I don't think Abraham could necessarily understand that though, and God has known that, and has revealed himself to mankind accordingly.....If, however, Abraham were "privy" to the knowledge that to "by faith" sacrifice his only Son Isaac were the picture, in type, of Jesus, he would invariably know and understand and accept it. His faith would be rewarded, even though he did not know or understand the "why"...Abraham actually (according to Scripture) believed a falsehood: Abraham, (wrongly) believed that God would "resurrect" his son.....but God did not do so...God had chosen to never have him killed in the first place!!! God has made Isaac a "type" of Christ, but not perfectly so. Isaac was "obedient unto death" as Christ was, but God DID resurrect Jesus. and not Isaac. See what I mean?