why do you suppose it ends with the Kingdom, you are making unfounded assumption, please show your point. or connection that is in part know and will be complete? Is the Kingdom in part now?
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Gift of tongues?
- Thread starter Mikey
- Start date
why do you suppose it ends with the Kingdom, you are making unfounded assumption, please show your point. or connection that is in part know and will be complete? Is the Kingdom in part now?
better to remain silent, I guess,
The Kingdom is not in part, when written, and is not the object of being complete in the verses,
The supposition is wrong.
Tongues were used to disseminate the word quickly to all the foreigners in Jerusalem. They heard in their own languages, The speaker was not speaking in a unknown tongue, The Holy Spirit revealed to the unsaved what was said.
Scripture is complete and unchangeable as Rev
So me where Kingdom is supported in this application
Actually show a verse that says the Kingdom is ever complete
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Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
I never said I did assume that. But you have yet to show how you connect it to the completion of Scripture. You are the one that made the claim so the burden of proof falls on you. Your assumption that it is Scripture necessitates that there is only one perfect thing that will ever come.
no , show me where what is complete is the Kingdom
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Burden of proof is on you. You are the one making a claim. Are you not able to show how your view is correct?
I showed my proof, that it was referring to the Bible, show me that it is was Kingdom,, I find no correlation.
Uh you make a claim without backing it up and then pull this. You have not shown how those verse support your claim. You just post verses and "remain silent". And the above post is incoherent.
One should keep in mind that το τέλειον generally means "the completion" or "the maturity" more so than "that which is perfect", and the passage should be interpreted primarily under those terms.
Either the "completion" of the scriptural canon or the church moving from spiritual childhood into "maturity" at the close of the Apostolic age seem to be the more likely meanings, particularly in view of the preceding child into man context preceding.
Either the "completion" of the scriptural canon or the church moving from spiritual childhood into "maturity" at the close of the Apostolic age seem to be the more likely meanings, particularly in view of the preceding child into man context preceding.
1689Dave
Well-Known Member
According to Curtis Edwards, Pagan Pentecostalism: Its Roots: Sex, Sin & Slavery, Voodoo was the religion of African slaves. And even before slavery they would voodoo any religion they took part in. They had voodoo Catholicism for the main part.
The after coming to Haitian and American shores, they voodooed what ever religion they encountered. Voodoo Methodism and voodoo Baptist churches, were common in Louisiana.
Wm. Seymour tried to voodoo the Church of God (Anderson) but got expelled.Shortly thereafter, he voodooed his Wesley Methodism at Azusa street in Los Angeles. He thought voodoo tongues were the same as Bible tongues. This became the Assemblies of God denomination with the Oneness United Pentecostal Church splitting off from them over their antitrinitarian views.
Curtis Edwards
Edwards, Curtis. Pagan Pentecostalism: Its Roots: Sex, Sin & Slavery . Kindle Edition.
Also Speaking in Tongues: Glossalalia and Stress Reduction
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MB
I don't believe it's the church or should I say any church. Scripture; it's has been tampered with IMO We do not have the original manuscripts so How could we have a perfect Bible. Unless real perfection were to come. IMHO this would be Christ. He is the only thing to ever exist on this planet that is still perfect.
MB
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Where did you show proof? Perhaps I missed it but I have not seen you offer proof.
Actually David you don't know nor could you. This whole thread is speculation there is no proof except the perfection of Christ.
MB
I only showed the verses dealing with scripture be complete and the purpose of tongues.
Not a connection to I Cor,
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Ok, but we are talking about 1 Corinthians since that where it says the tongues will cease when that which is perfect is come. So you HAVE to make a connection to it.
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
I was taught when Scripture was complete.
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Wonderful, but where do we get that from Scripture? How do we get that from exegeting 1 Corinthians 13?
You are awful patient. I have dealt with those kinds of posts for so long on this board I have no patience to explain why 1+1=2
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
That actually means a lot coming from you considering some of our sparring of the past
