First, none can deny that "ALL" who are given do in fact come. None of you can dispute that "given" is presented as the cause where as "SHALL come" is grammatically presented as the consequence. So all your distorted views that reverse that order exegetically false or displays of pure eisegesis.
This is correct, Jesus said all that the Father gives him shall come to him.
Hence, "ALL" given equal the elect that were chosen by the Father and given to him before the world began as none of the elect will fail to come to Christ and be saved. Even Bob who rejects eternal security cannot reverse the grammatical order in John 6:39-37 to making coming the cause of being given as that would be plainly perverting God's word specified by the grammar used.
They certainly were chosen before the foundation of the world, but I am not familiar with scripture that says they were given before the foundation of the world. Perhaps you can show that scripture?
Hence, "ALL" those given to the Son by the Father was not conditioned on coming to Christ but coming is clearly and grammatically conditioned upon being given by the Father for the purpose to come to Christ.
It simply says "all that the Father giveth me shall come to me". It does not say that coming is conditioned upon being given as you say, nor does it say being given is conditioned upon coming to Christ, it simply says all that the Father gives Jesus shall come to him. I do not add to what it says.
Hence, being given refers to God ETERNAL WILL of Purpose and this is plainly spelled out in verses 38-39 as the Son is claiming that his very purpose in coming to earth was to carry out this specific aspect of the Father's will that none given should perish. PLEASE NOTE VERSES 38-39 IS REFERRING TO THE SON's ABILITY TO ACCOMPLISH THE WILL OF THE FATHER IN THIS SPECIFIC MATTER rather than our will as Bob and other rejectors of OSAS presume, pervert, distort this text and its plain words and grammar.
I agree that it is the Father's will that none given should perish.
But you are wrong about men's will not being involved, Jesus said it was his Father's will that all who see the Son and believe on him should not perish.
Jhn 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me,
that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
Yes, it is God the Father's will that none he gives to Jesus should perish, and it is Jesus's will to carry out the will of his Father. But it is also the will of the Father that those which BELIEVE on Jesus should have everlasting life and that Jesus should raise them up on the last day. So the will of man is involved as well.
Hence, "giving" has to do with God's eternal purpose election by the Father giving to the Son a certain chosen people before the world began. It is those "given" that "shall come" and NONE SHALL BE LOST.
Again, please show that these persons were GIVEN before the foundation of the world, I am not familiar with that scripture.
In contrast, the drawing of the Father has to do with the POWER of God in accomplishing that all given will all come as clearly stated in verses 37-39. The POWER does not exist in man "no man can come" but only in God (v. 44). ALL given do in fact "shall come" because God's power working in those "given" obtains that end.
Yes, all given who come to Jesus were drawn. But this does not say that all drawn shall come. You just can't seem to grasp this.
All fish that were caught were drawn in on a fishing line, but not all fish drawn in on a fishing line were caught. Some fish fought and resisted and jumped off the line.
Why can't you understand such a simple analogy? I actually showed you a video of a fish being pulled into a boat that fought and resisted, jumped off the line and out of the boat. This is perfectly normal.
The nature of this power INSIDE the elect or all that were given is INSTRUCTIVE by divine revelation. That is, the condition of the unregenerated heart is described in Epheians 4:18 as "darkened....ignorance....darkened" and by divine fiat, exactly as God spoke light into existence in Genesis 1:3, Paul says God speak the "light of knowledge" into existence within the darkened heart of man (2 Cor. 4:6). You cannot possibly deny this direct analogy provided by Paul in 2 Cor. 4:6 in direct relationship with God's active work within those saved. Neither can you possibly deny Christ's affirmation that such divine revelation is solely the work of God and not obtained by "flesh and blood" as clearly stated by Christ in Matthew 16:16-17.
Yes, the unregenerated man is ignorant. That is why God must teach the man. When men hear the gospel they are instructed that they are sinners, and that the wages of sin is death. They are instructed that Jesus died for their sins and rose from the dead, and that if they will trust him he will save them. Those men who listen and learn from the Father are now enabled by knowledge to trust Jesus and be saved.
In Romans 10:14 Paul asks how any man can believe in Jesus unless he has HEARD of him. He does not imply any other cause of inability except ignorance. Paul implies that all that is necessary for a man to be saved is that a preacher needs to come and preach the gospel to them. Once a man has heard the gospel and been taught, he is now able to place his trust in Jesus.
The scriptures NEVER say a man has to be regenerated to have the ability to believe. You cannot produce a single verse of scripture to support this. And that is important, if your view is correct, there should be scripture to support it. There is NONE.
What you fella's intentionaly do, and deceptively do, and wrongly do is to set forth an interpretation of John 6:44-45 that DENIES this work is the exclusive INTERNAL work but rather a JOINT work between God and man with the emphasis upon the power of man's will.
No, we read verses 44-45 literally for what they actually say. It is you that is adding to the word of God.
Three summary points I set forth on John 6:44-45 and the relationship between "draw" and "taught" as synonyms cannot be honestly disputed only DISHONESTLY disputed. The relationship between the Biblical quotation containing "taught of God" and both "HAVE heard and....HAVE learned" cannot be honestly disputed but only DISHONESTLY disputed simply because "taught" has no meaning apart from BOTH having heard and having learned. No one is taught who has not "heard" just as no one is taught who has not "learned." It requires both and that is precisely how Jesus is defining "taught" in his explanation.
Drawn and taught are not the same thing. You can say this a thousand times, and you will be wrong a thousand times.
All men are drawn, but not all are taught. Some men refuse to listen when God calls them. Read Proverbs chapter 1;
Pro 1:24 Because I have called, and ye refused; I have stretched out my hand, and no man regarded;
25 But ye have set at nought all my counsel, and would none of my reproof:
Did God draw these men? YES, he called them, he stretched out his hands to them, he literally begged them to come to him. That is drawing.
Was God able to teach them? NO, because they refused to listen to God, they set at nought all his counsel, and would not listen to his reproofs.
It is PLAIN AS DAY, but you refuse to see it. Drawing and being taught are not the same things whatsoever.
Therefore, the "ALL" drawn in John 12:32 EQUALS the "ALL" taught in verse 45that EQUALS the "ALL" given in verses 37-39. John 6:64-65 proves this is true because "there are some" the Father NEVER drew who yet made a profession of faith among those called his "disicples" and thus had heard with the PHYICAL ear but had not heard from the Father. They had learned from Christ with their mind through their EXTERNAL senses but had never "learned" from the Father in their heart.
No, John 12:32 says that if Jesus be lifted up, he will draw all men to him. But not all who are drawn listen or learn, and therefore not all come.
As for those given, I believe it refers to those God foreknew would believe in time. I believe God in his foreknowledge could foresee who would believe in time, and these are the persons he gives to Jesus. Jesus said "my sheep hear me", so this is what distinguishes Jesus's sheep, they LISTEN to him.
"ALL" Whom the Father gives (election) to the Son shall come to him (Wll of Purpose) because it rests solely upon Christ's power to perform the Father's will - vv. 37-39
I believe God the Father gives those he foreknew would believe on Jesus. These are persons like Nathanael who believed the scriptures and looked for the promised Messiah. Jesus saw him before he actually came to Jesus and believed.
"ALL" whom the Father draws (Effectually quickens and calls) by HIS POWER to come to Christ shall be "ALL" taught of God so that they "have" heard and "have" learned shall also come to Christ because they are one and the same people.
No, not all drawn learn or come to Jesus.
Mat 22:2 The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son,
3 And sent forth his servants
to call them that were bidden to the wedding:
and they would not come.
You need to read this verse over and over again until you understand it. Not everyone who is drawn comes.