I think you have to interpret verse 11 along with 12 and 13.
The Greek in verse 11 is "to his own things." So you could say that the Word came to His own things and people. They should have recognized Him, received Him, and believed on His name.
They didn't. Why?
Verse 12 tells us: He did not give them the right to become God's children. Verse 13 goes even further and tells us that these children are not born by human parents, or human effort, or a husband's will, BUT BY GOD.
IMO, John was speaking of the Jewish nation. Christ came to them. They should have known Him, recognized Him, received Him, and believed on His name.
They couldn't.
Mat 13:13 For this reason I speak to them in parables: Although they see they do not see, and although they hear they do not hear nor do they understand.
Mat 13:14 And concerning them the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled that says:
'You will listen carefully yet will never understand,
you will look closely yet will never comprehend.
Mat 13:15 For the heart of this people has become dull;
they are hard of hearing,
and they have shut their eyes,
so that they would not see with their eyes
and hear with their ears
and understand with their hearts
and turn, and I would heal them.'
and
Joh 9:39 Jesus said, "For judgment I have come into this world, so that those who do not see may gain their sight, and the ones who see may become blind."
Joh 9:40 Some of the Pharisees who were with him heard this and asked him, "We are not blind too, are we?"
Joh 9:41 Jesus replied, "If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin, but now because you claim that you can see, your guilt remains."
raying: