Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
So believing and confessing is not enough?
-
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
"God's Pure Word"
- Thread starter Salty
- Start date
- Status
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
I don't have access to YouTube. Where did you get the course 40 years ago well before YT existed?
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
So what is the pure word of God in Spanish, Chinese, Russian?
Truther
Member
...via...
Truther
Member
Henry licensed 1,500 copies, and it became the first Bible in English to be sold legally in England.
Truther
Member
That is the prequalifier to get to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of one's sins.
Truther
Member
At a Bible college bookstore.
Truther
Member
As long as they use the KJV as the plumbline for their Bible, they are pure.
Or Japanese?
What do you mean by "plumbline"? Bible translators don't use that term. (I am one.)
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Yeah it doesn't work that way.
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
What happens if you die before you get baptized?
Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
The KJV was NOT the first legal English Bible. Try again. (HINT the first one was YEARS before, and it had nothing to do with King James)
Truther
Member
Using the KJV as a comparison standard from English to whatever language translation(not modern versions).
The 1611 KJV was not the first legal English language Bible.
Since you directly claim that God was in control over the printing press in the printing of the 1611 edition of the KJV, you are in effect saying that God was directly responsible for every word in that 1611 edition. Your statement makes God responsible for the factual errors [the name of the wrong king "Jehoiachin" at 2 Kings 24:19 in the 1611 edition; the name of the wrong group of people "Amorites" at 1 Kings 11:5; etc.] in the 1611 edition. According to your statement, God controlled and directed the printing of "God" at Jeremiah 49:1 instead of "Gad" as in present KJV editions. You make God responsible for printing "my LORD" at Zechariah 6:4 instead of "my lord" as in present KJV editions. You make God responsible for printing "ye shall not eat the blood of no manner of flesh" at Leviticus 17:14 instead of "ye shall eat the blood of no manner of flesh" in present KJV editions. Your statement makes God responsible for omitting the words "of the LORD" after the word "temple" at 2 Kings 11:10 in the 1611 edition.
Why do you now accept over 2,000 changes to the 1611 edition when you claim that God was in control over its printing in 1611?
Truther
Member
You must wait until the thousand years are finished....
Truther
Member
It was legal in England?
Truther
Member
If you side with the naysayers, go ahead.
Lotta fake news out there.
KJVO sites answer your questions.
King Henry VIII did not license the printing of the 1611 KJV. King Henry VIII licensed in 1537 a printing of a revision of the 1535 Coverdale's Bible. This 1537 Bible stated on its title page: "Set forth with the King's most gracious license." In 1537, King Henry VIII also licensed the printing of the 1537 Matthew's Bible.
The 1539 Great Bible is the first authorized version in English.
Unreliable KJV-only sites do not answer my questions and points. You try to dodge and avoid actual facts concerning the 1611 edition and other editions of the KJV.
- Status