Reformed1689
Well-Known Member
Here's a question, can those who worship an idol be saved?They also would hold that NO valid conversions happen apart from the use of the Kjv!
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Here's a question, can those who worship an idol be saved?They also would hold that NO valid conversions happen apart from the use of the Kjv!
Great question!Here's a question, can those who worship an idol be saved?
The existence of this thread indicates to me, that most who profess Christ don't really know for sure.Define what "God's Pure Word" actually means.
The existence of this thread indicates to me, that most who profess Christ don't really know for sure.
Or rather that no one can agree on it...
Which I've seen repeatedly since joining this board over 3 years ago.
Otherwise, those who read and believe the Bible should be able to point at something and say with surety what constitutes God's pure word.
I think you already know my position, Salty...or otherwise - is the King James Version the Pure Word of God?
We don't want a sample, how do we get the FULL course.
I can't access YT. But it should have other avenues if he used it 40 years ago.
The "KJV" is an English translation of God's very words;
Words that have been preserved for His children down through the centuries in the Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic.
Exactly, the idea that there was some special circumstances surrounding the KJV translation effort has no basis in reality.In a few cases the KJV is a translation of Latin words from an edition of the Latin Vulgate of Jerome translated into Greek by Erasmus and those words are found in no known Greek NT manuscripts and is a translation of textual conjectures introduced by Erasmus and Beza that are found in no known Greek NT manuscripts.
The KJV is an English translation in the same sense and way that the pre-1611 English Bibles are English translations and in the same sense and way that post-1611 English Bibles such as the NKJV are.
It does not.When the Kjv disagrees with the Hebrew and Greek texts, who is right?
Jesus had not resurrected and Acts 2 had not started. He died under the Law. Read Acts 1-2 for more info....So the thief never made paradise, so Jesus lied to him then?
No, most Bible translations say Acts 2:38 is baptism in the name of Jesus Christ FOR THE remission of sins.So you are adding to the true Gospel, and so hold to another and a false one?
Did the Kjv give that doctrine to you?
Languages are not divinely inspired.NO, the Lord NEVER inspired any languages other then those 3 used in the originals!
I named it Understanding the Bible.Good grief, what is the NAME of the course?
All languages can be translated from English to whatever.You seem to mean that the KJV must mean what we call the source text (ST). Must the KJV be the ST for a translation in, say, Japanese, for the Word of God to be pure in Japanese?
And where do you find this in Scripture?
My history sources and yours are different.YES! Authorized by the King. My, my, did your history just get shaken?
Nestle/Aland is not "fake Greek." It's the real thing.It does not.
It disagrees with the fake Nestle/Aland Greek.
So you don't believe in translating from the original languages of the Bible? The pure Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek?All languages can be translated from English to whatever.
The English KJV is the comparison, not the NIV, RSV or AMP etc.