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"God's Pure Word"

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Salty, Apr 13, 2022.

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  1. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Here's a question, can those who worship an idol be saved?
     
  2. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Great question!
     
  3. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    The existence of this thread indicates to me, that most who profess Christ don't really know for sure.
    Or rather that no one can agree on it...
    Which I've seen repeatedly since joining this board over 3 years ago.

    Otherwise, those who read and believe the Bible should be able to point at something and say with surety what constitutes God's pure word,
    as they would immediately recognize it as such with no trouble ( John 8:43-47 ).
     
  4. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    or otherwise - is the King James Version the Pure Word of God?
     
  5. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    I think you already know my position, Salty...

    The "KJV" is an English translation of God's very words;
    Words that have been preserved for His children down through the centuries in the Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic.
     
  6. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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  7. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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  8. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    In a few cases the KJV is a translation of Latin words from an edition of the Latin Vulgate of Jerome translated into Greek by Erasmus and those words are found in no known Greek NT manuscripts and is a translation of textual conjectures introduced by Erasmus and Beza that are found in no known Greek NT manuscripts.

    The KJV is an English translation in the same sense and way that the pre-1611 English Bibles are English translations and in the same sense and way that post-1611 English Bibles such as the NKJV are.
     
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  9. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Seven hour warning

    This thread will be closed no sooner than 11 pm EDT / 8 pm PDT
     
  10. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Exactly, the idea that there was some special circumstances surrounding the KJV translation effort has no basis in reality.
     
  11. Truther

    Truther Member

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    It does not.

    It disagrees with the fake Nestle/Aland Greek.
     
  12. Truther

    Truther Member

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    Jesus had not resurrected and Acts 2 had not started. He died under the Law. Read Acts 1-2 for more info....
     
  13. Truther

    Truther Member

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    No, most Bible translations say Acts 2:38 is baptism in the name of Jesus Christ FOR THE remission of sins.

    They have not deleted it yet.
     
  14. Truther

    Truther Member

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    Languages are not divinely inspired.

    That is fake news.
     
  15. Truther

    Truther Member

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    I named it Understanding the Bible.
     
  16. Truther

    Truther Member

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    All languages can be translated from English to whatever.

    The English KJV is the comparison, not the NIV, RSV or AMP etc.
     
  17. Truther

    Truther Member

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    5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
     
  18. Truther

    Truther Member

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    My history sources and yours are different.

    Since we did not live then, take your pick.
     
  19. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Nestle/Aland is not "fake Greek." It's the real thing. :) It just leaves out a lot of words and phrases that should be in there.
     
  20. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    So you don't believe in translating from the original languages of the Bible? The pure Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek?
     
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