Have MV's caused more confusion than good?

[Askjo]

The confusion is not caused by versions - it is caused by a lack of knowledge on the parts of God's people. Study the issue, figure out where you stand - and the confusion stops.

See the bold above -- wrong! These MVs said that Jesus' testimony is valid and not valid. Jesus contradicts Himself according to these passages in modern versions. Confusion? Do you deny it?

 

[tinytim]

See the bold above -- wrong! These MVs said that Jesus' testimony is valid and not valid. Jesus contradicts Himself according to these passages in modern versions. Confusion? Do you deny it?

Where does any MV say that Jesus' testimony is not valid... you just stated a false hood..

Now who is causing the confusion?

C4K is right, you are wrong...

 

[Askjo]

Where does any MV say that Jesus' testimony is not valid... you just stated a false hood..

Now who is causing the confusion?

C4K is right, you are wrong...

God is not the author of the confusion then who did?

False? Can you prove me wrong? If you can't, then you are a liar.

I found. Did you find?

 

[Rippon]

Dumb joke deleted by Rippon .

 

[tinytim]

God is not the author of the confusion then who did?

False? Can you prove me wrong? If you can't, then you are a liar.

I found. Did you find?

You said an MV says that Jesus' testimony is not true...

It is up to you to prove what you said.. which MV says this.. and I will burn that MV.

Right God is not the author of confusion... All language confusion started with the tower of Babel... and man caused it... by tempting God...

I agree.. so stop lying about MVs... That is causing the confusion...

Which MV says that Jesus' testimony is not true?

 

[Askjo]

You said an MV says that Jesus' testimony is not true...

It is up to you to prove what you said.. which MV says this.. and I will burn that MV.

Which MV says that Jesus' testimony is not true?

The difference between 2 passages is to look at John 5:31 and 8:14.

NIV

If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.

"Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid,.....

 

[Baptist4life]

The difference between 2 passages is to look at John 5:31 and 8:14.

NIV

If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.

"Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid,.....

I wouldn't give ya .02 for an NIV.

 

[annsni]

The difference between 2 passages is to look at John 5:31 and 8:14.

NIV

If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.

"Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid,.....

Hmmm - the KJV (from BibleGateway) says:

If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true

So what's the problem??

 

[tinytim]

The difference between 2 passages is to look at John 5:31 and 8:14.

NIV

If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.

"Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid,.....

I am really trying to follow your logic.. but I can't...

Here is what the KJV says in John 5:31
John 5:31
(31) If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Now how is that different from the NIV?

True.. Valid... both mean the same thing... Are you intentionally trying to cast unfounded doubt about the Bible, NIV?

 

[tinytim]

I wouldn't give ya .02 for an NIV.

Based on that logic, you wouldn't give .02 for a kJV...

 

[EdSutton]

Well, looks like another thread will shortly be shot down. 'Cause its sure on borrowed time!

Ed

 

[tinytim]

I will leave so I won't be part of the blame....
Have at it boys....

 

[EdSutton]

I have posted this before. I have little problem following about any English version that is not completely "off the wall", in my Bible.

Some of the "super-sized" paraphrases are a bit harder to follow, but I can generally still keep up fairly well. From the Wyclif to the TNIV, I'm pretty sure I can follow along and certainly get the gist of any basic translation that is a supposed word for word, or thought for thought rendering. I'll make an exception for The Cotton-Patch Epistles.

Oh yeah! Bye-bye as well, everyone to this thread. I'll let someone else have the last rites, 'er I mean words.

Ed

 

[Askjo]

Hmmm - the KJV (from BibleGateway) says:

If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true

So what's the problem??

No problem with the KJV -- The KJV translators translated the same Greek word TWO DIFFERENT ways. Therefore God did not contradict Himself in the KJV.

WHY did the NIV use "testimony" in BOTH cases?

 

[annsni]

No problem with the KJV -- The KJV translators translated the same Greek word TWO DIFFERENT ways. Therefore God did not contradict Himself in the KJV.

HUH? The KJV translators translated the same word 2 different ways and the NIV didn't - and the NIV is contradictory??

WHY did the NIV use "testimony" in BOTH cases?

Umm - because it's the same word??

 

[Askjo]

I am really trying to follow your logic.. but I can't...

Here is what the KJV says in John 5:31
John 5:31
(31) If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Now how is that different from the NIV?

True.. Valid... both mean the same thing... Are you intentionally trying to cast unfounded doubt about the Bible, NIV?

Compare these passage in the KJV. No plm with the KJV because these passages showed 2 DIFFERENT words here in the KJV. Why did the NIV use "TESTIMONY" in BOTH cases? Other modern versions used "WITNESS" on these passages. Why did they use "WITNESS" in BOTH cases? If they did, Jesus contradicts Himself in these modern versions.

 

[Hope of Glory]

It's the exact same word in both verses. In fact, the parts of speech are the same.

Oh, and the word is "witness", which just as our Christian witness, is our "testimony".

BTW, what is the problem with one verse saying, "If I testify about myself, my testimony is true" and the other verse saying, "If I testify about myself, is it not true?"

Both say the same thing, one of them literally, one of them rhetorically.

 

[Mexdeaf]

Compare these passage in the KJV. No plm with the KJV because these passages showed 2 DIFFERENT words here in the KJV. Why did the NIV use "TESTIMONY" in BOTH cases? Other modern versions used "WITNESS" on these passages. Why did they use "WITNESS" in BOTH cases? If they did, Jesus contradicts Himself in these modern versions.

Let me help this thread along....

:BangHead:

:tonofbricks:

 

[Hope of Glory]

I think you need a few more bricks on this one.

 

[thomas15]

Getting back to the orig post by Baptist4life, Lets say that the people are confused by different translations as is feared. What is wrong with these (confused) individuals that they go to all of the trouble to make it to sunday school and church but become befuddled during the sermon because the pastor has one version and they have another?

I don't mean to be mean, but if these individuals have are having problems comprehending the pastor's message because they have a Bible of a different version why don't you (Baptist4life) suggest to them that they bring a copy of what ever Bible the pastor uses next week. Seems like the problem you have has a simple solution unless I'm missing something here.

Tom