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"Heaven Is for Real"

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Steadfast Fred

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BUT if Enoch and Elijah are in heaven then they have dispatched of the this fleshly body--because that which is corruptible cannot enter the presence of YAH..and if they have their new bodies in that case-- How can they die after receiving that which is NOT corruptible--what do you think they are gonna do--put back on their fleasly body so they can die ???
Who says their bodies are corruptible in heaven? Is not God, the Creator of the body able to keep the body from decay if He so chooses?
 

Steadfast Fred

Active Member
Brother Fred, I don't like being cantankerous, but...

How does the fact that Enoch and Elijah never died, but God took them go with what you are saying - that people will die one and only one time. How does the fact that millions of Christians will be alive when Jesus returns and they will NEVER die the first time go with what you are saying.

With those examples in mind, I don't think Hebrew 9:27 is saying that every human being will die once and only once. It's not teaching a dogma about death. It's teaching about Christ's one-for-all sacrifice.

Here it is in context.




This is a teaching about Jesus. The high priest had to seek God for the people's atonement every single year. Jesus Christ paid the atoning price only once. Paul interjects a statement about humanity - that just like humanity will die and then be judged at the end - Jesus has to die and will be the Judge.

There isn't a numerical or quantitative idea here. And the exceptions to dying once - Enoch, Elijah, those alive at Christ's return, those raised from the dead to die again don't negate the intent of the verse. Just as it is the normal thing that we die and then we will face God at His judgment seat, Jesus died and IS mediating for us now and WILL be part of that judgment.

While the context shows that Jesus had to die, I do not believe verse 27 is speaking of Jesus alone. For this reason... "And as it is appointed unto MEN once to die". Why not say And it was appointed that Christ should die? Why use the word 'MEN'? Men is plural. It was not speaking of a single individual, but humanity as a whole.
I believe it is referring to mankind, not just Jesus Christ.
 
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HisWitness

New Member
While the context shows that Jesus had to die, I do not believe verse 27 is speaking of Jesus alone. For this reason... "And as it is appointed unto MEN once to die". Why not say And it was appointed that Christ should die? Why use the word 'MEN'? Men is plural. It was not speaking of a single individual, but humanity as a whole.
I believe it is referring to mankind, not just Jesus Christ.

WELLLLLL---that's NOT even Baptist Doctrine friend--be careful :laugh:
 

HisWitness

New Member

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
JAH and YAH is one in the same------NO letter J in Hebrew YAH

:smilewinkgrin:-----------:smilewinkgrin:--------------:smilewinkgrin:

No, it's completely different words. If there is no letter J in Hebrew, then why did you put it in there? Are you adding to the Word of God?
 

Steadfast Fred

Active Member
English name yea


JAHSHUA was his original name--which holds its original meaning and sounding that the Father gave him.:thumbsup::thumbsup:

Jesus doesn't hold the same meaning for you because you don't truly love Him. If you did, you would love His name in any language.
 

HisWitness

New Member
No, but you do. You do not keep the commandments. Why do you tempt God by putting a yoke on me that you yourself cannot bear?

you even quoted that scripture out of context---they wanted those to be circumcised and follow the law in order to receive Salvation--and so putting a yoke upon their heads and the apostles.

I am not saying this --and Yahshua did NOT say this friend.

Can you hear the messiah--listen closely Fred!!!!!!!

IF YOU LOVE ME-----KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS !!!!!!!!

Not to obtain Salvation--But if you already have Salvation and LOVE HIM--then you WILL KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS !!!!!!
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
While the context shows that Jesus had to die, I do not believe verse 27 is speaking of Jesus alone. For this reason... "And as it is appointed unto MEN once to die". Why not say And it was appointed that Christ should die? Why use the word 'MEN'? Men is plural. It was not speaking of a single individual, but humanity as a whole.
I believe it is referring to mankind, not just Jesus Christ.


Here is a thought.

Are both of the following verses speaking of a man?

Which appointment of death was made first?

But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. Genesis 2:17

Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, [as] silver and gold, from your vain conversation [received] by tradition from your fathers; But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you. 1 Peter 1:18-20
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
While the context shows that Jesus had to die, I do not believe verse 27 is speaking of Jesus alone. For this reason... "And as it is appointed unto MEN once to die". Why not say And it was appointed that Christ should die? Why use the word 'MEN'? Men is plural. It was not speaking of a single individual, but humanity as a whole.
I believe it is referring to mankind, not just Jesus Christ.

Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: Rom 5:12

Did not one man being death for all men including the Christ?

Yet wasn't it appointed for the Christ to die before that one man was created?
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Personally I'm sick of this back and forth 2nd grade nonsense. Since I have the ability to keep everyone from more of this misery, I will.

Closed early for repairs.
 
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