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help.....I need to understand this....

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Why would God, who KNOWS that unregenerate man is DEAD IN TRESPASSES AND SIN, command man, to repent, when He knows fully well, He, the Life, must first enter him, the dead, so He can make him to will and to do of His good pleasure ?
Isn't that like plugging something to a dummy outlet and expect current to flow into it ?


Great question

God commands all men to repent knowing that we cannot


God also commands us to keep the 10 commandments knowing that we cannot
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
But doesn’t God already know this?

yes

the answer is that He wants us to know and understand that we cannot

that’s why it’s called grace and mercy
 

timdabap

Member
Are you saying God doesn't know some things?
No. I am saying God would not require repentance unto eternal salvation because He Himself knows unregenerate man, DEAD in trespasses and sin, in Adam, DOES NOT and WILL NOT require what He knows is impossible to the unregenerate.
 

timdabap

Member
Great question

God commands all men to repent knowing that we cannot


God also commands us to keep the 10 commandments knowing that we cannot

To show man (who thinks he is only half-dead) that he is, in his unregenerate condition, TOTALLY dead in trespasses and sins.
 

timdabap

Member
Why did Christ say He shed His blood to included lost Judas? ,Luke 22:20-21, ". . . the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. But, behold, the hand of him that betrayeth me is with me on the table. . . ."
you rattled my cage there for awhile (correct expression?).
Until I read and re-read all the Scripture, except that in 1 Corinthians and other epistles, on when the Lord instituted the Lord's Supper.
John records that Judas had left to do his number when the Lord's Supper was instituted (John 13).
The two other synoptic gospel writers (I think it was Mark and Luke) made no mention of Judas being with them, if I recall correctly.
So, there.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
John records that Judas had left to do his number when the Lord's Supper was instituted
John 13:2, ". . . And supper being ended, . . .". Luke 22:20, " . . . Likewise also the cup after supper, . . ."
Before Jesus instituted the remembrance Judas dip his hand with Jesus in a dish, Matthew 26:23-26 also Mark 14:20-21. So then Luke 22:19-22. Now following the foot washing done by Jesus, Jesus gives Judas a piece of dipped bread, John 13:24-26.
Of the gospel account writers only Luke wrote in order, ". . . It seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write unto thee in order, . . ." -- Luke 1:3.
 
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Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Why did Christ say He shed His blood to included lost Judas? ,Luke 22:20-21, ". . . the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. But, behold, the hand of him that betrayeth me is with me on the table. . . ."
Jesus had already said he was not speaking to all of them that night.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Why did Christ say He shed His blood to included lost Judas? ,Luke 22:20-21, ". . . the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. But, behold, the hand of him that betrayeth me is with me on the table. . . ."
That's not what He said. The sun and rain that God sends on the wheat, is that for the tares?
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
No. I am saying God would not require repentance unto eternal salvation because He Himself knows unregenerate man, DEAD in trespasses and sin, in Adam, DOES NOT and WILL NOT require what He knows is impossible to the unregenerate.
Did He not command abstinence from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil of those He knew would fall? Did He not give His law to a people He knew were stiff-necked and gainsaying, and that would break it?

How is the command to repent any different?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
You would benefit from reading a Harmony of the Gospels. Read John's account.
I have been using Bible harmonies of the 4 gospels over 50 years. And if I am not mistaken one has existed since the second century. And in the mid 90's I did a verse by verse study of the Biblical events from all 4 gospels based on Luke's order of events to discover the actual historical Jewish date of the death burial and resurrection. It, the Scripture is definitive.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
I have been using Bible harmonies of the 4 gospels over 50 years. And if I am not mistaken one has existed since the second century. And in the mid 90's I did a verse by verse study of the Biblical events from all 4 gospels based on Luke's order of events to discover the actual historical Jewish date of the death burial and resurrection. It, the Scripture is definitive.
I disagree with your strained conclusion that Judas, personally, was included as anything more than a tare in the collective body of disciples in Christ's statement, but I have appreciated the knowledge of the biblical manuscripts you've shared on the board.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
I have been using Bible harmonies of the 4 gospels over 50 years. And if I am not mistaken one has existed since the second century. And in the mid 90's I did a verse by verse study of the Biblical events from all 4 gospels based on Luke's order of events to discover the actual historical Jewish date of the death burial and resurrection. It, the Scripture is definitive.
Then you know Jesus had already said he wasn't speaking to all of them when he said "You". So what's the problem?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Then you know Jesus had already said he wasn't speaking to all of them when he said "You". So what's the problem?
No. Judas was at the Lord's table just as Luke wrote. And John recorded the foot washing Jesus did was after the supper was ended. After which Jesus sent Judas out.
Luke 22:20-21, John 13:2, ". . . supper being ended . . . ." According to the word of God. Not man made tradition.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
No. Judas was at the Lord's table just as Luke wrote. And John recorded the foot washing Jesus did was after the supper was ended. After which Jesus sent Judas out.
Luke 22:20-21, John 13:2, ". . . supper being ended . . . ." According to the word of God. Not man made tradition.
Please show from the text, how the footwashing was after the supper ended.
 
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