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How Did Jesus Do It?

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Says the word of God: 2Ti 2:23 But foolish and unlearned questions avoid, knowing that they do gender strifes.

It may not be a foolish question, but after 4 threads, the answers become foolish.

This is not remotely an important doctrine; nor is anyone that takes one side of that issue over the other, guilty of being a heretic.

And therefore, accordingly, my last word.

Bye
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hebrews 5:8
Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered.

I guess we will need to nullify this verse, since some claim it was impossible to be unfaithful. Oh well....

Then let us rewrite Romans 5:19:

For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.

Naw, Christ was unable not to obey, so His lifelong accomplishment should not be used as our model.

Folks, Christ chose to go to the cross and die a horrible death for us. We should not make light of the Lamb of God, who was holy and sinless through lifelong obedience to His Father.
 
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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Hebrews 5:8
Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered.

I guess we will need to nullify this verse, since some claim it was impossible to be unfaithful. Oh well....

Then let us rewrite Romans 5:19:

For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.

Naw, Christ was unable not to obey, so His lifelong accomplishment should not be used as our model.

Folks, Christ chose to go to the cross and die a horrible death for us. We should not make light of the Lamb of God, who was holy and sinless through lifelong obedience to His Father.

“Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him” (Hebrews 5:8-9)

learned obedience (εμαθεν υπακοην). Second aorist active indicative of μανθανω

“acquire a habit of, and in past tenses, to be accustomed” (Liddell & Scott);
“to be in the habit of, accustomed to” (Thayer);
“acquire the habit of, be accustomed to” (Abbott-Smith)
“learn, appropriate to oneself less through instruction than through experience or practice: εμαθεν αφ ων επαθεν την υπακοην he learned obedience through what he suffered Hb 5:8” (Ardnt & Gingrich)
 

MB

Well-Known Member
On and on folks, these posters are ignorant of the topic, but know what it is not. :)
I wasn't talking about what you think you know but, your know it all attitude and your disrespectful comments to others.
MB
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I wasn't talking about what you think you know but, your know it all attitude and your disrespectful comments to others.
MB
You do know gossip is against the teachings of Christ?
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
“Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him” (Hebrews 5:8-9)

learned obedience (εμαθεν υπακοην). Second aorist active indicative of μανθανω

“acquire a habit of, and in past tenses, to be accustomed” (Liddell & Scott);
“to be in the habit of, accustomed to” (Thayer);
“acquire the habit of, be accustomed to” (Abbott-Smith)
“learn, appropriate to oneself less through instruction than through experience or practice: εμαθεν αφ ων επαθεν την υπακοην he learned obedience through what he suffered Hb 5:8” (Ardnt & Gingrich)

Actually methinks what he learned was, the obedience.

A very specific, obedience. relative to what he feared.

I do not believe it had a thing in the world to do with, habit.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
How would you learn obedience if you were unable to disobey? Impossible?
What price did Jesus pay for His obedience? If He was unable to disobey, whatever the supposed price
would be non-existent.

human logic cannot be used to understand our Gread God, or the Incarnate Lord Jesus Christ, The God-Man!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
your reasoning is that somehow God the Holy Spirit "prevented" Jesus Christ from giving into temptation, which He did for every moment, of every day. But, for this to equate to us humans, it means that there must be at least ONE godly Christian, who is like Jesus in their "ability not to sin". If not, then your reasoning is moot!
There was nothing in Jesus able to respond and commit sin to temptation, as he was and is Holy, none of us are!
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
learn some Greek grammar and then come back! :rolleyes:

who in the days of his flesh both prayers and supplications unto Him who was able to save him from death -- with strong crying and tears -- having offered up, and having been heard in respect to that which he feared,
through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience, Heb 5: 7,8
and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross, Phil 2:8

Does, did learn by the things which he suffered, show how the following took place, having become obedient unto death?

Is that not the very purpose of ? John 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth.

I Am that I Am, tell them I Am sent me
I Will Be Who I Will Be, tell them I Will Be sent me

'Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah; Duet 6:4

John 8:58 Jesus said to them, 'Verily, verily, I say to you, Before Abraham's coming -- I am;'

John 1:14

Paul, an apostle -- not from men, nor through man, but through Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who did raise him out of the dead -- Gal 1:1

In many parts, and many ways, God of old having spoken to the fathers in the prophets, in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; Heb 1:1,2

John 1:14

He appointed heir ????? Heir? Did learn, the obedience. Obedience of what/whom?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
who in the days of his flesh both prayers and supplications unto Him who was able to save him from death -- with strong crying and tears -- having offered up, and having been heard in respect to that which he feared,
through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience, Heb 5: 7,8
and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross, Phil 2:8

Does, did learn by the things which he suffered, show how the following took place, having become obedient unto death?

Is that not the very purpose of ? John 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth.

I Am that I Am, tell them I Am sent me
I Will Be Who I Will Be, tell them I Will Be sent me

'Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah; Duet 6:4

John 8:58 Jesus said to them, 'Verily, verily, I say to you, Before Abraham's coming -- I am;'

John 1:14

Paul, an apostle -- not from men, nor through man, but through Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who did raise him out of the dead -- Gal 1:1

In many parts, and many ways, God of old having spoken to the fathers in the prophets, in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; Heb 1:1,2

John 1:14

He appointed heir ????? Heir? Did learn, the obedience. Obedience of what/whom?

Your Christology is flawed
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
human logic cannot be used to understand our Gread God, or the Incarnate Lord Jesus Christ, The God-Man!
More obviously false doctrine being spewed all over this thread. Irrational study of God's word is for false teachers to advocate.
 
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