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Featured How is the Wrath Of the Father Appeased if Not PST Atonement?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Yeshua1, May 6, 2020.

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  1. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    Which has nothing to do with the subject, which is, why did God pour out his wrath on his son? His son was not a sinner.

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  2. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Thanks, I could read it by clicking on it but not quote it.
     
  3. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    ITL

    Will you suggesting the flood was a reward for the people's wickedness? Or was the flood a punishment for their wickedness? The world of the ungodly that got destroyed in that flood are going to his spend an eternity separated from God paying for this sins.
     
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  4. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Perhaps just one that actually proves your claim (not a passage for you to read into but one that actually says what you say) would be sufficient?

    Genesis 6:5-7 The LORD saw how great man's wickedness on the earth had become, and that every inclination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil all the time. The LORD was grieved that he had made man on the earth, and his heart was filled with pain. So the LORD said, "I will wipe mankind, whom I have created, from the face of the earth--men and animals, and creatures that move along the ground, and birds of the air--for I am grieved that I have made them."
     
  5. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Noah was.
     
  6. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    Yes.

    Now why was the wrath of God poured out on his son?

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  7. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Was Noah?
     
  8. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    It appears you are incapable of answering my question. Why did God pour out his wrath on his son?

    If you are not going to address the subject matter I will stop responding to you.

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  9. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    So what are we learning here?
    Number one the sins of the elect don't have to be paid for.
    Number two Jesus did not have to come as the sacrificial lamb sent by the father to take away the sin of the world.
    3 instead Jesus just had to come to be tortured as a victum by wicked men.
    No thanks, I think I'll just stick with what The Bible says in Hebrews 9:22 that without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins. I'll stick with Galatians 4 for that and a fullness of time God-sent forth his Son made under the law to redeem them that were under the law. I'll stick with John 1:29 behold the lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world
     
  10. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    I'm learning that you are not addressing the key issue, which is the WRATH of God. It's not the shedding of blood, not Jesus dying for our sins, not the flood, etc.

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  11. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    That still doesn’t address God pouring out His wrath and condemnation on His Son.
     
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  12. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    Colossians 1:22
    he has now reconciled in his body of flesh by his death, in order to present you holy and blameless and above reproach before him,

    where does this talk about the wrath of God being poured out on His Son???

    I do see where Paul says Christ’s physical death and physical body brought reconciliation to us.
     
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  13. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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  14. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Number 5
     
  15. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Post 94, post 109
     
  16. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    5. You are not smart enough to understand my numbering system?

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  17. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    Nope, you’re imposing your narrative into the text. Where does it say that God poured out His wrath on His Son? If that were true, you’d be able to find at least one verse.
     
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  18. JonShaff

    JonShaff Fellow Servant
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    Hebrews 10:5-10
    5 Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said, “Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body have you prepared for me; 6 in burnt offerings and sin offerings you have taken no pleasure. 7 Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come to do your will, O God, as it is written of me in the scroll of the book.’” 8 When he said above, “You have neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings” (these are offered according to the law), 9 then he added, “Behold, I have come to do your will.” He does away with the first in order to establish the second. 10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

    “Offering of the BODY of Jesus Christ once and for all.”

    How does this square up with PSA as they say it was God’s wrath being meted out and sins punished that reconciled sinners to God (this passage speaks nothing about God’s wrath being poured out)? this text says it was Christ’s body as a sacrifice to the point of death brought reconciliation Because of Christ’s OBEDIENCE. How do you square that up with PSA?

    keep reading...

    Hebrews 10:18 (ESV) Where there is forgiveness of these, there is no longer any offering for sin.

    There’s that “sin offering” phrase again.
     
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  19. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    The verses I offer need to be understood.
    This seems to be where you are not going quite there yet?
    The hymn writer understood it;
    Nothing but the blood of Jesus.
    or according to what is posted here, the blood was not necessary
     
  20. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    you need eyesight, not new verses. you just need to see what is there. Martin covered all these verses before
     
    #120 Iconoclast, May 10, 2020
    Last edited: May 10, 2020
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