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How Many here Like Gender inclusive translations?
- Thread starter Yeshua1
- Start date
HatedByAll
Active Member
The English translation should be as close to the original source as is practical. If the source is masculine the translation should be masculine.
In the places where everyone agrees that the masculine represents both sexes then say so in bracketed text. Don't change the actual language except where it is necessary due structure differences in the languages and due to the lack of direct word for word translations.
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In the places where everyone agrees that the masculine represents both sexes then say so in bracketed text. Don't change the actual language except where it is necessary due structure differences in the languages and due to the lack of direct word for word translations.
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What about Niv 2011?
So like the new Scofield would bracket archaic terms and put corrected ones in margin, same thing for inclusive language?
Yeah, that's a good one.
How about the CSB ?
That's a good one too.
"However, even though readers need to know that the original languages were grammatically gendered (and those studying the original languages are aware of this), we believe that the primary purpose of a translation is to communicate the message of the Bible to its readers, and so we believe that translations should be gender-inclusive where appropriate to reflect the inclusive nature of what is being discussed. Thus, use of 'brothers and sisters' is appropriate to reflect a word that in previous translations would have been rendered 'brothers,' if Paul is speaking to a church congregation that includes both men and women." ( taken from Fundamentals Of New Testament Textual Criticism by Stanley E. Porter and Andrew W. Pitts, p.187)
HatedByAll
Active Member
The way I am considering it can be shown using 1 Corinthians 2:1
1 Cor. 2:1 KJV "2 And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God."
1 Cor. 2:1 NIV "2 And so it was with me, brothers and sisters. When I came to you, I did not come with eloquence or human wisdom as I proclaimed to you the testimony about God."
If the original text that is interpreted "brothers" in the KJV is actually the masculine only word, I would suggest the NIV text to indicate what the original language actually says in the normal text, and then add "and sisters" in brackets or some other indicator to show that the interpreter added to the original text (with the intent to show what was actually intended.) The reason I suggest this is so the end user has the best translation as well as the generally excepted likely meaning of what was said.
Example: And so it was with me, brothers [and sisters.]* When I came to you, I did not come with eloquence or human wisdom as I proclaimed to you the testimony about God
Net bible great for the textual notes, translation not so much!
Many prefer it to Niv 2011, as a better translation!
So like take the margin notes that the Nkjv supplies for alternate renderings and put them in text to indicate that?
It's better than the ESV, NKJV and NASB in that regard.
The notes are great.
The NET is a very viable translation. I have 3 things up when I read the Bible. The ESV, the NET and the NA28. I have found several words, phrases and sentences in which the NET translated the Greek, as I read it, better than the ESV....and you know I am a fan of the ESV.
We have been blessed with a multitude of quality translations in English.
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HatedByAll
Active Member
Not necessarily. Let me explain it this way. If you know anything about the nuances of Southern (USA) English, you would realize that if a Southerner referred to a Coke, they could be referring to an actual Coca-Cola, a Pepsi, a Rootbeer, or even a Sprite. So, if a translator, translated the sentence "Did you enjoy your coke?" How should they translate it? For example, should it be French for "Did you enjoy your Coke?" or should it be "Did you enjoy you carbonated beverage?" Which would be the accurate translation? I guess you could pick either choice, or to try to be most accurate, the interpreter may say "Did you enjoy your Coke [or other carbonated beverage]? In this case, a footnote may be best explaining this, but even that is not optimal because many readers don't bother reading the footnotes.
Hope that helps clear it up instead of confusing it even more. . .
Another nuance referring to gender is seen in the USA, and, I believe in Britain. A ship is often referred to as "she", even if it plainly has a male name A downward passage in a street, to a sewer line, or other utilities, is called a "manhole" in the USA, even though females have also used them for a long time. I believe many English Bible references employ a male nuance, while common sense says they're actually gender-inclusive.
However, I like Bible translations to be accurate-as-possible with the languages being translated.
However, I like Bible translations to be accurate-as-possible with the languages being translated.