glfredrick
New Member
Faith is a noun, belief is a verb.
Faith is an object and can even be words
Can a noun and a verb be synonymous?
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Faith is a noun, belief is a verb.
Faith is an object and can even be words
Can a noun and a verb be synonymous?
Can a noun and a verb be synonymous?
The fly in this ointment is that "faith" is a gift of God in the salvation process. Yes, justification is by faith -- absolutely! But according to the Ephesians passage I cited above, "faith" is not present in us or because of us, but by God who's grace grants it. Even Arminian theology stipulates this very clearly. I recommend a review of the Articles of the Remonstrance, but again, to clarify that I am speaking truth in this matter.
If we are using a "logical order" (which is necessary, because the ordo salutis is a logically derived doctrine) then timing is a non-issue. It is not as if one is regenerated 10 years before faith comes, nor if they are faithful 10 years before regeneration comes. I see that all -- from the human perspective -- (including justification and adoption, which are also required for salvation) are instantaneous. The error comes, then, in attributing TIME to a logical proposition when no time may actually elapse.
Sorry GL, no disrespect, but I don't see the "fly in the ointment" that you seem to see there. I have absolutely NO Disagreement concerning the need of God's grace...NONE.
You (yall) say that this "grace" comes in some form of a special dispensation as a result God's election. I believe this grace is offered to ALL mankind, and I have still heard no argument to suggest that it is not an inherent property of the imago dei. Surely something so theologically profound would have been enunciated clearly to Adam. I don't see that.
:thumbsup::thumbsup::thumbsup:
Thanks for "crystalizing" it for me.
Just one point on this. Romans 8 speaks of "eagerly awaiting our adoption, the redemption of our bodies," which I think is an important distinction because our adoption as sons is really not complete until glorification. So, that is something Paul clearly sees as a process we wait for the completion of in the future.
So, elsewhere when Paul speaks of US (believers) being predestined to adoption as sons, you must ask yourself:
1. Are lost people being predestined to become believers and thus be adopted as sons upon their glorification?
OR
2. Are believers in Christ predestined to be adopted?
In other words, has God predetermined who will and won't believe, or has God simply predetermined what will become of all those who believe and follow Him?
If a coach determines before the season starts that his team will be in top condition, does that in anyway imply that he will be the one determining who and who will not try out for the team?
Where... :wavey:
So, you don't believe the "brethren" Paul is addressing in the Corinthian church are really "brethren" at all? Because in the next several versus Paul states that they too are acting like natural men and thus cannot receive these same spiritual things. Clearly Paul is speaking about the inability of a man who is not walking in the Spirit do receive the "meat" of the word...the "deep things of God" (vs. 10).Now the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him; and he cannot know them, because they are spiritually judged. 1 Cor 2:14
The natural man must be born of the Spirit BEFORE he can know or receive the things of the Sirit of God. How much plainer can it be put?
Yes, this correlates to what he says to Israel elsewhere:43 Why do ye not understand my speech? Even because ye cannot hear my word.
44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father it is your will to do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and standeth not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father thereof. Jn 8
Same context as above. Keep reading in that passage and you will see that Jesus speaks of another flock of sheep he will bring in. That is in reference to the Gentiles, "who will listen." (Acts 28:28)25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believe not: the works that I do in my Father`s name, these bear witness of me.
26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep. Jn 10
Can you show all this from scriture? I'd like to see it.
Not really. I think we both agree that all good things come from God. Did he give everyone the ability to reason? Does that mean everyone uses that ability in the same way or unto the same end?The question you are not dealing with here is the origin of "faith."
Then you are misunderstanding my view, because I believe it is very much centered on God the giver of all good things. But, as I argued previously, our ability to reject or neglect God's provisions and gifts doesn't in anyway lesson His glory as the giver.I sincerely believe that you are misplacing the origin of that faith, it being God, and not man's efforts, works, or otherwise human-centered in nature.
I'm from up nort' so "ya'll" is still alien to my thinking, and no disrespect taken! We can disagree theologically all day long without disrespecting each other or the doctrines we hold. Doesn't mean that we don't fight like cats and dogs over what we feel is truth, but that doesn't (or should not) go to the man, just the idea!
And, actually, it was given to Adam. God said, "Do this and die." Adam did, and died. Then, in Gen 3, God gave the proto-evangelum -- the promise of a Messiah who would come to set things right -- and it was there that GOD began a new mission in the world to redeem lost sinners.
No "special dispensation" required. in fact, it is Arminianism that has invented the category of "prevenient grace," a "special dispensation" of God's grace if ever there was one.
both cals and Arms affirm that man was so ruined by fall, that we MUST have God apply grace to us in order to have us "restored" enough from the fall in order to be actually able to hear the Gospewl and believe in jesus!
Cals affirm that God applies irrestible Grace to His elect, so that they MUST accept Jesus
Arms say God grants coomon grace to all. so that all can freely accept/reject Jesus
Think that unlike MR Skan, you are indeed a Arminianist!
So, you don't believe the "brethren" Paul is addressing in the Corinthian church are really "brethren" at all? Because in the next several versus Paul states that they too are acting like natural men and thus cannot receive these same spiritual things. Clearly Paul is speaking about the inability of a man who is not walking in the Spirit do receive the "meat" of the word...the "deep things of God" (vs. 10).
Yes, this correlates to what he says to Israel elsewhere:
John 12:39: For this reason they could not believe, because, as Isaiah says elsewhere: 40 "He has blinded their eyes and deadened their hearts, so they can neither see with their eyes, nor understand with their hearts, nor turn--and I would heal them."
They are being hardened and blinded in their rebellion for a great redemptive purpose, just like Pharaoh was.
Actually, they were ALREADY hard towards the Messiah, and God hastened their hardness for His purpose, but just they were children of satan, aLL today are until/unless God intercedes to redeem out of satan Kingdom and into that of kingdom of Jesus!
God used theur natural inclined hardness for His purpose, but they represent state of ALL people, NOT just those "Judicially hardened"
Same context as above. Keep reading in that passage and you will see that Jesus speaks of another flock of sheep he will bring in. That is in reference to the Gentiles, "who will listen." (Acts 28:28)
The first flock of sheep were the remnant of Israel reserved from the hardening process by which they would be the foundation for the church and take the message of reconciliation to the rest of the world. Context is KEY!
I "personally" see no problem at all with what you have just expressed. Can I be an Arminian if I believe that one cannot "lose their salvation"? A label does not bother me at all, unless someone is using it in an intentional pejorative manner.
think that an Arm refers to one who holds to what I wrote on Common grace..
I tend NOT to attach lose of salvation, as I think even Arminus himself stated "possibility" did not know for certain!
It's taught in Romans 1. The people referred to by Paul "knew God" in that they "clearly saw and understood" his divine qualities and eternal nature, thus they were without excuse for "trading that truth in for a lie." If the natural man can know God so as to be without excuse through this general revelation, how much more so are they when brought the special revelation of the gospel's truth?
It's taught in Romans 1. The people referred to by Paul "knew God" in that they "clearly saw and understood" his divine qualities and eternal nature, thus they were without excuse for "trading that truth in for a lie." If the natural man can know God so as to be without excuse through this general revelation, how much more so are they when brought the special revelation of the gospel's truth?