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How to Improve Our English Translations of Scripture

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
English was not even remotely close to being a language when the last inspired word of God was penned in Greek.

Was it possible for God to inspire a group of translators to communicate the truth of His Word to us very shortly after the Reformers put us on the right track from Catholicism? Of course I'm speaking of the Authorized KJV.
 

SovereignGrace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Was it possible for God to inspire a group of translators to communicate the truth of His Word to us very shortly after the Reformers put us on the right track from Catholicism? Of course I'm speaking of the Authorized KJV.
Was it possible? Sure. Was it? No. The KJV is not on a higher plane than the others in regards to inspiration.
 

SovereignGrace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.[2 Peter 1:21]

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:[2 Timothy 3:16]

When we are talking about biblical inspiration, we are talking about as the Bible was being written, not translated.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.[2 Peter 1:21]

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:[2 Timothy 3:16]

When we are talking about biblical inspiration, we are talking about as the Bible was being written, not translated.

Ok, I'll take your word it was impossible for God to inspire the Authorized 1611 KJV at that critical time in history.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
What proof is there that the KJV is inspired in ways other translations are not?

What about translations that are not English? Are they as inspired as the KJV or no?

What proof do you have if yes?

I don't have any proof and neither do the KJVO folks.

What they have is a time, a place, and a need for the inspiration of His communicated truth to man.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
So do you use the 1611 - or the 1769 KJV

I use the 1611 Authorized KJV that was revised in 1769.

The reason it's still called the 1611 Authorized KJV is plain to read online.

The revision did not effect the communicated Word of the 1611, it addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated.

If there had been changes to the communicated Word it couldn't be called the 1611 Authorized KJV any longer.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
I use the 1611 Authorized KJV that was revised in 1769.

The reason it's still called the 1611 Authorized KJV is plain to read online.

The revision did not effect the communicated Word of the 1611, it addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated.

If there had been changes to the communicated Word it couldn't be called the 1611 Authorized KJV any longer.
So if it was updated 178 years later to "addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated." Then it must be acceptable to do so again (for example - 1982 NKJV) in order to "addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated." Especially since now some 500 KJV words are now obsolete!

But let me ask you this -
Which is more important?

Defending the KJVO position
or sharing the Gospel - with someone even if it is not a KJV 1769 that we are using?

This question my friend is the bottom line!
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
So if it was updated 178 years later to "addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated." Then it must be acceptable to do so again (for example - 1982 NKJV) in order to "addressed updated spelling, punctuation and minor words that were outdated." Especially since now some 500 KJV words are now obsolete!

But let me ask you this -
Which is more important?

Defending the KJVO position
or sharing the Gospel - with someone even if it is not a KJV 1769 that we are using?

This question my friend is the bottom line!

Of course the Gospel is more important. You should tell that to the ones who have a problem with someone believing the KJV is the infallible Word of God. There's plenty of them around.
 

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
Scripture is given by God and inspired and profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and for instruction in righteousness.

I'm sorry you don't believe that is what we have.
You have changed this into “only the authorized 1611 King James Version of scripture is given by God and inspired and profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and for instruction in righteousness.”

I’m sorry you are adding man’s opinion to what the Bible actually says about itself in 2 Timothy 3:16.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
You have changed this into “only the authorized 1611 King James Version of scripture is given by God and inspired and profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and for instruction in righteousness.”

I’m sorry you are adding man’s opinion to what the Bible actually says about itself in 2 Timothy 3:16.

I can see you don't like that. My point is if you can't prove the KJVO folks to be wrong, and there is a possibility they could be correct, why then do you guys rail them?
 
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