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My intention was not to slander you. If you feel that way please accept my apology, because that was not intended that way.If someone disagrees with you, that is no reason to slander them.
Personally I think you mishandled Scripture to make it prove your point.I backed up my arguments with reason and scripture.
That is obviously not a correct statement. It has been shown that signs are clearly intended for the Jews, but you continue to dance around that fact. So you continue to show that your mind is made up and will not change. Clear Scripture has been given and you just dance around it so that you can say what you just said. You don't want to see Scripture for what it says you want to prove your theology, so that's what you do. But that's what most people do. That's the "Christian" way no-a-days unfortunately. We have some of the most unteachable folks around. Every denomination has their way of doing things and everyone thinks they are right and everyone thinks they can prove their way is right.If I am wrong about something, and you can show me from the Bible, I will change my point of view.
Absoultely I can. I just changed some major points in my theology about four months ago after coming across some teaching that I had never been introduced to before and the Holy Spirit convinced/convicted me that it was right and so I changed my views/theology to the truth. And it went totally against what I had been taught.Can you say the same about yourself?
Again I am writing you off, becuase you don't even show signs of wanting to be open minded. You just throw out your proof texts without giving thought to what is being said. When that happens it's time for me to move on because that person is obviously stuck in their way of thinking.What I see is that when someone makes an argument from scripture that you are wrong, you just write that person off as not caring what the Bible says.
Now this is a funny statement. You don't want to be slandered, but it's okay for you to slander me? How in the world do you know whether or not I look up the verses that are posted? That is about as arrogant a statement as you could make. And just for you information I have looked up every verse that you have thrown out, except Romans 10. I didn't look that chapter up, becuase I can tell you already that you are taking the book of Romans out of context for the most part, because Romans is not a book about salvation by grace through faith for the most part. The book does deal a little with that subject, but it is written concerning the good news after spiritual salvation.Why don't you humble yourself enough to look up the verses people post to you and consider that you might be wrong?
Yes. I've already said that. Why were they alive spiritually? Becuase the message that John the Baptist, Christ and the disciples/apostles preached was a message that could not even be understood by sprititually dead people. You hit it right on the head when you said the Jews were spiritually blinded. But blindness and death are two totally different things.Were the Jews alive?
Already dealt with this issue.Why don't you bother to open to Romans 10. Paul tells us there two ways to be alive, by keeping the law, and by faith. He tells us Israel did not seek it by faith, so he did not obtain what he sought for. If Israel was not 'alive' by faith or by keeping the law, how can you argue that they were alive?
As far as I can tell, Romans is the book that goes into the most detail on what it means to be alive spiritually and how to get spiritual life. It's a major theme in the book. The just shall live by faith.
And I am going to assume that you mean that they believed in the message of salvation by grace through faith, but that would be incorrect. That's not the message that was being delievered to them. The message that they were accepting or rejecting was the message of the kingdom. Matthew calls it the kingdom of heaven (the actual translation should be kingdom of the heavens). The oldest known manuscript has this rendering in John chapter 3, but the modern day translations have it as kingdom of God. But they are talking about the same thing. But that message is not the same message as eternal salvation.And just to clarify, I don't believe all Jews in Jesus time were spiritually dead. Some responded with faith. Some repented at the preaching of John. Some believed when Jesus came.
I've already dealt with these issues. It is clear that Jews were the only ones that "wanted," "desired," "required," whatever you want to call it a sign. You have provided no Scripture saying that Gentiles, Greeks, unsaved or whatever you want to call it people "wanted," "desired," "required" signs. So if you can't come up with a Scripture that said this people group needed or wanted these things then the obvious conclusion, which you still want to try to dance around, is that it was only the Jews.Let's examine your arguments so far. Paul said that the Jews require a sign. From this, you conclude that signs were only for Jews? The verse says no such thing. The Jews wanted signs. Would the desire of the Jews for signs mean that God would never give Gentiles signs? No, of course not. You need to make a stronger case. I point out the weakness of your case and give you an example of a sign done among Gentiles and you accuse me of not wanting to know what the Bible teaches. Who is the one who does not want to know what the Bible teaches? If you do want to know, don't attack the character of those who disagree. Instead, deal with the arguments. Study the Bible and post the scriptures and reasons for what you believe.
Pretty clear that is what the Bible says, becuase what JJump says is of no concern.You are arguing that tongues are ONLY for a sign.
Let me ask you this question concerning that statement. What edification does the church receive today by the "gift" of tongues? What could possibly be said via tongues that can't be read plainly in the Scriptures? If you are saying that tongues give the church something that is not contained in Scripture then you are saying the church is receiving special revelation and that puts tongues on the same level as Joseph Smith's "special" revelation.I pointed you to passages of Scripture that show that tongues benefited the church and were given to edify the church. You did not even respond to this argument. Instead, you said I don't care what the Bible says.
Again you don't want to be slandered, but it's okay for you to do it. Now that's just laughable.You are the one not demonstrating a desire to know what the Bible clearly teaches. If you don't want to participate in the conversation, you can pull out in a dignified manner. But don't attack the character or motivation of those who disagree with you and put forth solid arguments.
I've never argued against signs being done in the midst of Gentiles, nor have I argued against the Gentiles manifesting signs. But the signs were for the benefit of the Jews to provoke them to jealousy.Now, show me the scripture that specifically says that no signs would be done for Gentiles, and that signs are ONLY for Jews. Don't show me a verse that says signs are for Jews, but rather a verse that says they are only for Jews and not for Gentiles.
And, it becomes obvious that he starts with an premise that is not directly or indirectly supported in Scripture...From section 1
At the Tower of Babel, God confused the languages of men. The only other biblical incident that can rival that confusion of languages is the confusion of tongues at Corinth. They had so confused their understanding of the gift of tongues, that they had substituted the reality for a satanic counterfeit. Because of this, Paul had to write an entire chapter just to deal with that issue.
You can argue for this from the example in Acts, but this is not what was going on in Corinth. Paul states some specific functions of tongues.Originally posted by Claudia_T:
The purpose of the gift was to give unbelievers an opportunity to hear the gospel in their own language. And so the gift itself would serve as a sign to unbelievers that the message they heard was from Heaven.
You can argue for this from the example in Acts, but this is not what was going on in Corinth </font>[/QUOTE]I believe that is precisely her point..it was not the real gift (tongues) is Corinth.Originally posted by Link:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Claudia_T:
The purpose of the gift was to give unbelievers an opportunity to hear the gospel in their own language. And so the gift itself would serve as a sign to unbelievers that the message they heard was from Heaven.
This is very ironic coming from you. Where have I said that signs are not for Jews? That is not the issue. The issue is whether or not signs are for Gentiles also.That is obviously not a correct statement. It has been shown that signs are clearly intended for the Jews, but you continue to dance around that fact. So you continue to show that your mind is made up and will not change. Clear Scripture has been given and you just dance around it so that you can say what you just said.
The ironic thing here is that I am the one answering your specific points. But you do not answer my specific points.You don't want to see Scripture for what it says you want to prove your theology, so that's what you do. But that's what most people do. That's the "Christian" way no-a-days unfortunately. We have some of the most unteachable folks around. Every denomination has their way of doing things and everyone thinks they are right and everyone thinks they can prove their way is right.
This is the key issue. I have scripture to prove my point. You do not. Here you admit it, though you meant it sarcastically. If you think I am wrong, deal with the specific points I make and tell me where my reasoning is flawed or where scripture does not back up what I say. That's how you learn from conversations like this, by actually engaging with the arguments.You obviously believe that you have the truth and have all the right verses to prove your point. So there really is no use in discussing Scripture with you because you are not as opened minded as you say you are.
So after a couple of posts, you can know and judge a person's heart? Do you consider that a supernatural spiritual gift?Again that is not meant as a slander, that's just the way I am seeing things. And when I can sense that a person really isn't open minded about looking at Scripture then it is time for me to move on, because I don't have time to waste.
I believe in God doing that sort of thing, but one might say you claim to have a supernatural revelation of something. Can you back up what you believe now from scripture?Absoultely I can. I just changed some major points in my theology about four months ago after coming across some teaching that I had never been introduced to before and the Holy Spirit convinced/convicted me that it was right and so I changed my views/theology to the truth. And it went totally against what I had been taught.
Again the irony is that you are doing the things you accuse me of. You don't even look up the verse in Romans which specifically contradict your argument. I show you where tongues operates as something other than a sign and you ignore it. SMM and I show you verses where signs served a purpose for Gentiles, and you ignore them. You don't deal with the specifics of arguments, and when your arguments are shown to be false, you don't respond to these arguments either. You are the one prooftexting, with poor examples of prooftexting. If the Jews require a sign, this says little about who God wants to give signs to, for example.Again I am writing you off, becuase you don't even show signs of wanting to be open minded. You just throw out your proof texts without giving thought to what is being said. When that happens it's time for me to move on because that person is obviously stuck in their way of thinking.
I told you to humble yourself and look up the verses. I didn't slander you.Now this is a funny statement. You don't want to be slandered, but it's okay for you to slander me?
I had Romans 10 in mind when I wrote that. If you would read and understand the opening part of the passage, you would see why unbelieving Jews are not spiritually alive. In fact, I paraphrased the passage for you earlier.How in the world do you know whether or not I look up the verses that are posted? That is about as arrogant a statement as you could make. And just for you information I have looked up every verse that you have thrown out, except Romans 10.
Look up 'live', 'alive', 'death', and 'dead' in Romans and compare how many times they appear in comparison to 'believe' and 'faith' and you will be surprised. I could write a list of verses about life and death in Romans off the top of my head.I didn't look that chapter up, becuase I can tell you already that you are taking the book of Romans out of context for the most part, because Romans is not a book about salvation by grace through faith for the most part. The book does deal a little with that subject, but it is written concerning the good news after spiritual salvation.
If you don't want to study a particular thing right now, that's okay. You could just not participate in that aspect of the conversation. But if you come into a forum arguing that an idea is scriptural, and then won't take the time to look up the verses that contradict your viewpoint, and still act like you are right, that is really bad form.But again I know you don't really want to deal with that, so why bother?
So do you think the elect are live before they believe? I don't know anyone that believes that.Yes. I've already said that. Why were they alive spiritually? Becuase the message that John the Baptist, Christ and the disciples/apostles preached was a message that could not even be understood by sprititually dead people.
That is not what I had in mind. I had in mind some of those baptized by John believing in Jesus while He was ministering before the cross.And I am going to assume that you mean that they believed in the message of salvation by grace through faith, but that would be incorrect. That's not the message that was being delievered to them. The message that they were accepting or rejecting was the message of the kingdom. Matthew calls it the kingdom of heaven (the actual translation should be kingdom of the heavens). The oldest known manuscript has this rendering in John chapter 3, but the modern day translations have it as kingdom of God. But they are talking about the same thing. But that message is not the same message as eternal salvation.
You are the one dancing. Does God only do what unbelieving Jews or Gentiles want? If Jews want a sign, does the fact that the Jews want one mean God will never give a Gentile a sign? Does it mean that God will give the Jews a sign when they want one?I've already dealt with these issues. It is clear that Jews were the only ones that "wanted," "desired," "required," whatever you want to call it a sign. You have provided no Scripture saying that Gentiles, Greeks, unsaved or whatever you want to call it people "wanted," "desired," "required" signs. So if you can't come up with a Scripture that said this people group needed or wanted these things then the obvious conclusion, which you still want to try to dance around, is that it was only the Jews.
There are different types of signs. The Bible calls casting out demons and various miracles 'signs.' The Jews also wanted to signs that were fulfilled predictions of future events.Signs are things that point to something that is future. So all the signs that were given were pointing to future events in the nation of Israel's future.
The Bible does not say this, and you have not shown scripture that the only role of tongues is as a sign.Pretty clear that is what the Bible says, becuase what JJump says is of no concern.
The problem here is that you are using unscriptural reasoning to back up your arguments about the Bible.Let me ask you this question concerning that statement. What edification does the church receive today by the "gift" of tongues? What could possibly be said via tongues that can't be read plainly in the Scriptures? If you are saying that tongues give the church something that is not contained in Scripture then you are saying the church is receiving special revelation and that puts tongues on the same level as Joseph Smith's "special" revelation.
That is not what I said you were arguing. I will quote a portion of what you replied to above,I've never argued against signs being done in the midst of Gentiles, nor have I argued against the Gentiles manifesting signs. But the signs were for the benefit of the Jews to provoke them to jealousy.
Two things:Scripture has already been given to you and you clearly still intend to dance around it. Now you show me a Scripture where Gentiles/unsaved/Greek whatever desire, want, need a sign. You can't, because one does not exist. Therefore the logical conclusion is that only the Jews want, desire, require a sign.
It can't be any more clear that that.
Two points.And again another point was laid out that even adds to the notion that the church is not in need of sign gifts today, because we are to walk by faith, not by sight. Sign gifts are for sight-seeking people. We don't need them, nor should we desire them. We don't need physical evidences. We are supposed to believe by faith and walk by faith.
Quite frankly I don't give a rip as regards to what John MacArthur says or doesn't say about tongues...Originally posted by Balion:
Go ahead and read PART 2 and then share with us.
YES I believe todays version of Speaking in Tongues, the Jibberish-type is coming from Satan and not of God.Originally posted by SpiritualMadMan:
So, I ask you straight up, do you believe that all Speaking in Tongues in today's church is satanically inspired? That it is the utterance of demons?
YES I believe todays version of Speaking in Tongues, the Jibberish-type is coming from Satan and not of God.Originally posted by Claudia_T:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by SpiritualMadMan:
So, I ask you straight up, do you believe that all Speaking in Tongues in today's church is satanically inspired? That it is the utterance of demons?
I stopped reading here. I did summarize my own points earlier. So clearly they would be "junk" to you as well.Originally posted by Link:
Dear Balion
Why don't you summarize the points yourself. I've read some junk by MacArthur on spiritual gifts.
Quite frankly I don't give a rip as regards to what John MacArthur says or doesn't say about tongues...Originally posted by SpiritualMadMan:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Balion:
Go ahead and read PART 2 and then share with us.
You are right in that the Bible doesn't directly affirm the negative of that statement. However there is no verse given that says Gentiles require a sign, so the logical conclusion is that signs are just for the Jews. That's why this discussion has gone circular. You are not going to see things any other way than what you see them. And that's fine. That's between you and God. I don't have time to go in circles.2. Your argument is not logical. If the Bible says that Jews require a sign and Greeks seek after wisdom, it is illogical to conclude that no Greeks want a sign and that no Jews seek after wisdom. The Bible does not affirm the negative of this statement.