I have two questions for KJVOist.

[william s. correa]

Originally posted by gb93433:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Bro Tony:
Askjo,

Don't change what I said, re-read it and respond. Again, in two years here no one has ever stated that the KJV is not God's Word, but several times, including you, the KJVOist have slandered the MV's by stating they were not God's Word.

Bro Tony

God calls slander and libel a lie. He calls those who do such things a liar. </font>[/QUOTE]have you ever told a LIE?

 

[Bro Tony]

We are not to be diligent to present ourself approved, but rather Study to show ourself approved unto God. The NKJV implies there is something man can do outside of studying the Word to please God by changing the word 'study' to 'be diligent'. One can be diligent in many things.

Lets try to keep things in context OK. The word diligence is toward the Word of God, the same way the word study is. The NKJV does not change the meaning of this verse at all.
This strawman arguement is without basis and again I challenge you or anyone else to find a verse where the NKJV' "CHANGES" doctrine.

Bro Tony

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by standingfirminChrist:
NKJ 2 Timothy 2:15 Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

We are not to be diligent to present ourself approved, but rather Study to show ourself approved unto God. The NKJV implies there is something man can do outside of studying the Word to please God by changing the word 'study' to 'be diligent'. One can be diligent in many things.


But unto Cain and his sacrifice, God had not respect.

There is only one thing God requires to please Him.

Did God require that you know what is inside of the pages of a Bible before you came to know Him?

Hebrews 11:6, "And without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is and that He is a rewarder of those who seek Him."


Many a man knows the Bible well and does not know God. But I have never seen a man who really knows God not know his Bible.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

NIV 2 Timothy 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a workman who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth.

Do your best?

Come on folks, our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord.

Do your best and see where it will get ya.

But unto Cain and his sacrifice, God had not respect.

 

[DeclareHim]

Originally posted by Bro Tony:
DeclareHim,

Now don't come in here and confuse Askjo with facts.

How true.

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by william s. correa:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by gb93433:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Bro Tony:
Askjo,

Don't change what I said, re-read it and respond. Again, in two years here no one has ever stated that the KJV is not God's Word, but several times, including you, the KJVOist have slandered the MV's by stating they were not God's Word.

Bro Tony

God calls slander and libel a lie. He calls those who do such things a liar. </font>[/QUOTE]have you ever told a LIE? </font>[/QUOTE]If you would read your Bible you would not need to ask such a question.

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by Bro Tony:
Still waiting for one example of my NKJV changing any doctrine found in the KJV or the manuscripts.

Yes, the NKJV changed doctrines in many passges. Prov 16:1 in the NKJV is wrong. Rev. 19:8 in the NKJV is wrong again. And more...

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by william s. correa:
KJVOism is not God's Word the KJB IS Gods Word!

Amen! I second that.

 

[DeclareHim]

Originally posted by standingfirminChrist:
NIV 2 Timothy 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a workman who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth.

Do your best?

Come on folks, our righteousness is filthy rags before the Lord.

I guess some of us like you build our theology on 1 verse of Scripture right? Never mind the rest of Scripture which clearly disproves your erronous thinking. You defy God and read into this verse for your own ends.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

There is only one thing God requires to please Him.

Did God require that you know what is inside of the pages of a Bible before you came to know Him?

Hebrews 11:6, "And without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is and that He is a rewarder of those who seek Him."


Many a man knows the Bible well and does not know God. But I have never seen a man who really knows God not know his Bible.

One can seek God and not diligently seek Him. Why was the word 'diligently' left out?

I can look for my wife's car keys because she asks me to, but if I do not want her to go anywhere, I will not look as diligently as she would want me to.

 

[DeclareHim]

Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by william s. correa:
KJVOism is not God's Word the KJB IS Gods Word!

Amen! I second that. </font>[/QUOTE]Well I'll third that the KJV is God's Word or at least a version of God's Word no one is debating that. But a couple on here believe it to be God's only Word to mankind which is asinine.

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by william s. correa:
Well they are men and they are teaching False Doctorines if they are teching from the NASB,NIV,NKJV and the new Gender friedly what ever it is! As far my
"yeah be your Yeah" there are also nays and those folks are a big Nay in My book! They have said things that are completly un true and have tried to Slander my good name! Read the post!It Dosent matter what I beleive in the scriptures are Above us All but to try and get some one to beleive you by spreading Falsehoods are a complete disgrace! The AV 1611 is the proof that you asked for read and learn from it all you need is the WORD!

Are you sure you are not stating exaggerations. Proof is always much better than opinions.

Which Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts do you use to test your statement of its accuracy rather than just repeating someone else's statement making yours only precise?

Are you stating that the people who were called Christians did not have God's word before English was ever spoken or existed?

 

[Bro Tony]

Yes, the NKJV changed doctrines in many passges. Prov 16:1 in the NKJV is wrong. Rev. 19:8 in the NKJV is wrong again. And more...

Same tired references that have been dealt with ad nauseum. Just because you continue to use this same post does not make it any more true. These verses do not change biblical doctrine and again you continue to attack the Word of God by making such statements. Not to mention you continue to lie about this matter.

Bro Tony

 

[Askjo]

Originally posted by Bro Tony:
Same tired references that have been dealt with ad nauseum. Just because you continue to use this same post does not make it any more true. These verses do not change biblical doctrine and again you continue to attack the Word of God by making such statements. Not to mention you continue to lie about this matter.

Pardon me, do I attack the Word of God? No, wrong! These modern versions attacked the Word of God.

Look at modern versions, for example:

God said, "Moses"

The Hebrew in OT said, "Moses"

Modern versions CHANGED to "he." That is incorrect.

Look at the KJB

God said, "Moses"

The Hebrew in the OT said "Moses."

The KJV said, "Moses." That is correct.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

I guess some of us like you build our theology on 1 verse of Scripture right? Never mind the rest of Scripture which clearly disproves your erronous thinking. You defy God and read into this verse for your own ends.

originally quoted by Bro Tony:
Lets try to keep things in context OK. The word diligence is toward the Word of God, the same way the word study is. The NKJV does not change the meaning of this verse at all.
This strawman arguement is without basis and again I challenge you or anyone else to find a verse where the NKJV' "CHANGES" doctrine.

Funny, when we find not just one verse that changes the meaning or 'doctine', we are wrong because there are several others in the NKJ that oppose those verses we point out.

The challenge has been met and once again, not accepted.

BTW, the KJV has 'clean and white' in Rev. 19:8, while the NKJ has 'clean and bright.' There are many bright colors. I'll stick with the KJV. White means purity.

 

[william s. correa]

Originally posted by DeclareHim:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by william s. correa:
KJVOism is not God's Word the KJB IS Gods Word!

Amen! I second that. </font>[/QUOTE]Well I'll third that the KJV is God's Word or at least a version of God's Word no one is debating that. But a couple on here believe it to be God's only Word to mankind which is asinine. </font>[/QUOTE]well even a 5 year old child can tell the difference between them and say this is not the same! Come on people get with the programm!

 

[Bro Tony]

Neither you SFIC or Askjo has presented one verse that "Changes" doctrine in the NKJV. Once again you Askjo have attack God's Word as you speak against the MV's. SFIC when you find one verse that "changes" doctrine in the NKJV I will gladly receive it. None of the verse or translation changes any doctrine, none.

Bro Tony

 

[gb93433]

Originally posted by standingfirminChrist:

One can seek God and not diligently seek Him. Why was the word 'diligently' left out?

Reasons why nobody should simply trust any translation.

From the Introduction to An Interlinear Literal Translation of the Greek New Testament by George Ricker Berry, Ph.D.

The Value of Hebrew and Greek to the Clergyman

1. Without some knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, you cannot understand the critical commentaries of the Scripture, and a commentary that is not critical is of doubtful value.

2. Without some knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, you cannot satisfy yourself . . as to the changes which you will find in the Revised Old and New Testament.

3. Without some knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, you cannot appreciate the critical discussions relating to the Books of the Old and New Testament.

4. Without some knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, you cannot be certain that in your sermon based on a Scripture text, you are presenting the correct teaching of that text.

5. Without some knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, you cannot be an independent student or a reliable interpreter of the Word of God.

6. As much knowledge of Hebrew can be secured in one year with the aid of an Interlinear Old Testament as can be gained of Latin in three years. Greek, though somewhat more difficult, may be readily acquired with the aid of an Interlinear New Testament/Lexicon.

7. The Hebrew language has, in all, 7000 words, and of them 1000 are repeated over 25 times each in the Old Testament.

8. Hebrew grammar has but one form of the Relative pronoun in all cases, numbers and genders; by three forms for the Demonstrative pronoun. The possible verbal forms are about 300 as compared with the 1200 found in Greek. It has practically no declension.

9. Within ten years, the average man wastes more time in fruitless reading and indifferent talk, that would be used in acquiring a good working knowledge of Hebrew and Greek that in turn would impart to his teaching that quality of independence and of reliability which so greatly enhances one's power as a teacher.

10. There is not one minister in ten who might not if he but would, find time and opportunity for such study of Hebrew and Greek as would enable him to make a thoroughly practical use of it in his work as a Bible-preacher and Bible-teacher.

 

[william s. correa]

Originally posted by standingfirminChrist:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />I guess some of us like you build our theology on 1 verse of Scripture right? Never mind the rest of Scripture which clearly disproves your erronous thinking. You defy God and read into this verse for your own ends.

originally quoted by Bro Tony:
Lets try to keep things in context OK. The word diligence is toward the Word of God, the same way the word study is. The NKJV does not change the meaning of this verse at all.
This strawman arguement is without basis and again I challenge you or anyone else to find a verse where the NKJV' "CHANGES" doctrine.

Funny, when we find not just one verse that changes the meaning or 'doctine', we are wrong because there are several others in the NKJ that oppose those verses we point out.

The challenge has been met and once again, not accepted.

BTW, the KJV has 'clean and white' in Rev. 19:8, while the NKJ has 'clean and bright.' There are many bright colors. I'll stick with the KJV. White means purity. </font>[/QUOTE]Amen bro preach it!

 

[william s. correa]

Originally posted by Bro Tony:
Neither you SFIC or Askjo has presented one verse that "Changes" doctrine in the NKJV. Once again you Askjo have attack God's Word as you speak against the MV's. SFIC when you find one verse that "changes" doctrine in the NKJV I will gladly receive it. None of the verse or translation changes any doctrine, none.

Bro Tony

yes they have