The issue is still this...if it doesn't fit YOUR linear understanding it cannot be true and must not be literal.
Let me re-state your thought. If it doesn't fit my linear/Chronological understanding, it may not be literal in literary style. But it is true. God created light for the stated purpose in Genesis on day one for day light and a day/night cycle. That much is in the text. And we also know that daylight comes from the Sun. I mean...this is an emperical observable fact. And these types of facts are there for US to observe and see.
Romans 1
20 For the invisible things of him since the creation of the world are clearly seen, being perceived through the things that are made, even his everlasting power and divinity; that they may be without excuse:
Emphasis mine (underlines)
You are still basing everything on your finite understanding of what and how light works in a linear fashion.
To a large degree, yes of course.
Isn't God bigger than our understanding?
Yes God is greater than our understanding absolutely.
Can't He create light on Earth sans the Sun? He clearly defied the laws of science more than once in the Bible...why not in Genesis?
Yes He could - and on this point I'll agree with you absolutely He could. But you aren't coming to me with some bogus argument that he HAD to or it would have been light years before we had light, LOL. I take issue with these kind of things that pepole come up with to tie God's hands.
As the scripture clearly states (New Testament even, hey!), we can see the invisible things of God via observation of that which had been made.
I know it isn't black and white, I get that. The only question to really ponder is this - does the text represent scientific and absolute chronoligcal certainty that day light to regulate day and night...was created apart from the source of that light which God created and which is observable? Or is the text representing the truth that God created light for day and night.
Is there a precendent in the Scriptures for the text and the people of the day taking it very literally from Jesus himself -and yet it was mataphor or only a spiritual truth? Sure. The classic understanding of 'eat my flesh' and people were all freaking out saying how can we eat this mans flesh - this is a hard thing to hear - please clarify - but Jesus repeated it and even let them fall away from him. But it's clearly not literal right?
Right? And the Catholic would then use YOUR argument against ME?!!! The text is literal, even with clarification being asked from the very Son of God himself! Yet we still take it symbolically.
We all have perceived double standards - just depends on which side you happen to reside.