From another thread:
Well, we know immersion did happen in the Early church-
Why is it over the next centuries the Roman Catholic church decided that sprinkling was acceptable?
But before we get into the time line:
What is the reason for baptism?
Hmmmm.... Why is it, Christians did not have total immersion baptisms for over 1500 years?
Well, we know immersion did happen in the Early church-
Why is it over the next centuries the Roman Catholic church decided that sprinkling was acceptable?
But before we get into the time line:
What is the reason for baptism?