Originally posted by PastorSBC1303:
I think we are getting away from the intent of the OP. Let's get back on track...
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> My question is why is there an inconsistency there? If we hold up divorce (which is not even mentioned in the text) in such a manner, why do we not hold up all of the qualifications in the same way? Why is a man that was a drunk before salvation qualified, but a man who was divorced before salvation disqualified?
</font>[/QUOTE]Because a man can quit drinking and never be drub=nk again, but a man who is divorced is still joined to that other half even though a divorce has taken place.
God's mandate that no man can put asunder what He has joined together.
Marriage is a living institution initiated by God: divorce can only injure that living institution, not kill it.
Though many a drunkard may have thought to marry the bottle, God does not honour a marriage against His will to join a man and a woman in holy matirmony, so there goes the same sex unions! But a man who marrys, saved or not, is still married til the death of his spouse, or his own death, then it
dont matter anymore.
JohnV I think you cats and dogs are in a state of harmonious bliss over there!
I agree with the acts of adultery as you say, but then every man could never be a pastor due to the accusative spirit of any conversation being seen as too intimate by the other spouse with any sex.
Fornication can only happen before marraige, adultery can only happen after marriage.