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Infallibility or Ecumenical Error?

GraceSaves

New Member
Jim,

Admit that your whole arguement is baited. We'll define hatred, you'll say, "And this council is obviously promoting hatred by your own definition, and thus the Catholic Church is not the true Church." It's pretty obvious.

So, instead of giving in to this vain attempt to discredit the Church, what Trying2Understand is consistently trying to prove is that the means are not infallible. The doctrine being established was over Passover, not about how to treat the Jews. You've made it a personal goal to get nitpicky and find faults in things that do not meet the criteria for infallibility and are trying to use them to your own advantage.

Reread what we've shown you about infallibility. Could the Church have been speaking in a hateful way in this document? Perhaps; I'm not going to judge by your few paragraphs of text without any other context. I refuse to jump to conclusions as you so obviously are doing. Either way, though, the sentences you picked out are infallible statements; they are not defining official, binding doctrine of the Church.

The Catholic Church has made two infallible statements in the last two hundred years, and yet in the same time, we've had the Second Vatican Council. Every word in that council, while we should read it with utmost sincerity and use it as a guide to explaining the preexisting truths of the Church, each and every word is not infallible. The same is true, no doubt, with the council of Nicea.
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
Again, Catholic's judge themselves by their own private definitions irrespective of what Jesus or the eyewitness apostles taught. Consider their official doctrine:

Matthew 5:43-45
"You have heard that it was said, 'Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.' But I tell you: Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, that you may be sons of your Father in heaven.
Luke 6:22
Blessed are you when men hate you, when they exclude you and insult you and reject your name as evil, because of the Son of Man.
1 John 2:9
Anyone who claims to be in the light but hates his brother is still in the darkness.
1 John 2:11
But whoever hates his brother is in the darkness and walks around in the darkness; he does not know where he is going, because the darkness has blinded him.
1 John 3:15
Anyone who hates his brother is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life in him.
1 John 4:20
If anyone says, "I love God," yet hates his brother, he is a liar. For anyone who does not love his brother, whom he has seen, cannot love God, whom he has not seen.
You need only ask yourself if Catholic institution hated the believing Jews from Israel. If it separated itself from them. If it murdered them. Then according to Jesus and his apostles, no such group is of the light and cannot be considered saved. This is official doctrine. How do you justify Catholic hatred? The means is as important as the outcome. Catholic definition in and of itself of infallibility proves its error and deception.

Explain.

Jim
 

GraceSaves

New Member
Like I said: baited.

Did you not have the courage to come out and just say this in the first place? No, you rather drag it out, draw much attention to it, and then shake the dust off your feet at us.

Your attitude has been so thoroughly Chrisitian throughout this thread. Tell me, Jim, DO the means justify the end? You should know.
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
Grace,

You may dislike the material found within Catholic history, but I am not the source of it. I am only comparing it with Jesus' teachings and those of his eyewitness apostles. Clearly these teachings are the most supreme and authoritative. You are mad at me because you have no defense nor excuse to explain away Catholic hatred toward the believing Jews from Israel. In fact, a hatred that extended to all things Israel that led to a complete rewrite of Christianity excluding all things Israel. Say nothing of the horrible persecutions done in the name of Rome.

Why don't you focus your emotion at the real issue? And why don't you accept the teaching of Jesus straight from his mouth. Surely no Council can change what he has authoritatively taught?

Jim
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
Grace,

You may dislike the material found within Catholic history, but I am not the source of it. I am only comparing it with Jesus' teachings and those of his eyewitness apostles. Clearly these teachings are the most supreme and authoritative.

You are mad at me because you have no defense nor excuse to explain away Catholic hatred toward the believing Jews from Israel. In fact, a hatred that extended to all things Israel that led to a complete rewrite of Christianity excluding all things Israel. Say nothing of the horrible persecutions done in the name of Rome.

Why don't you focus your emotion at the real issue? And why don't you accept the teaching of Jesus straight from his mouth. Surely no Council can change what he has authoritatively taught?

Jim
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
There it is. Must I assume no rebuttal can be made? If so, then I will take the position that my logic is correct. Catholicism is in error.

Jim
 
Originally posted by jimraboin:
There it is. Must I assume no rebuttal can be made? If so, then I will take the position that my logic is correct. Catholicism is in error.

Jim
Does your church allow Jews who do not accept Christ to be members? If not, why? Hatred?

Does your church observe Passover? If not, why? Hatred?

Would your church allow a person who observes Sabbath starting a sundown on Friday as a member? If not, why? Hatred?

Do you still believe that "oppressed in silence", in your original post to another thread, means that some person was kept silent?

Since you have not answered my questions, we may all assume that your church hates and has seperated from the Jews and thus is a false church and teaches a false gospel.
 

GraceSaves

New Member
Jim,

So, because I wasn't here on the board when you posted these threads...that makes your argument right? I have a lot going on right now, and I've posted a little here and there (one or two last night), but I haven't had time to respond to everything. Cut me some slack.

When did you "prove" that the Catholics Church was "hating" the "BELIEVING" Jews?

And since you think you've definitively answered your own question, please answer Trying2Understand's questions.

[ September 21, 2002, 11:50 AM: Message edited by: GraceSaves ]
 
DO the means justify the end?
I would have to say yes. If the means are right (i.e. in line with God's principles) then the ends, whatever it is, would have to be God's will. Althought I do understand many might try to find shelter for their position under such an umbrella.

By the way:
I appologize for the delayed response. I actually lost this thread. I just found out how to do a search and found it again (stinkin newbies).

and now a question:
I have read through everything and inserted my first question and opening comment above on limited information. I am trying to understand the main thrust of this debate but don't quite get it yet.

Grace, could you or T2U explain to me the basic point in question and/or the relevance of the questions 'trying' has asked but not been answered on?

SoCM
 

GraceSaves

New Member
You don't see the relevance in his questions, and I don't see the relevance of your post in general. How about we close the thread, since neither side wants to listen to the other?
 
Originally posted by jimraboin:
I would like to know as well.

Jim
I see. You need to know how your answers will be used against your arguement before you are willing to give them.

Ron
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
You may dislike the material found within Catholic history, but I am not the source of it. I am only comparing it with Jesus' teachings and those of his eyewitness apostles. Clearly these teachings are the most supreme and authoritative.

You are mad at me because you have no defense nor excuse to explain away Catholic hatred toward the believing Jews from Israel. In fact, a hatred that extended to all things Israel that led to a complete rewrite of Christianity excluding all things Israel. Say nothing of the horrible persecutions done in the name of Rome.

Why don't you focus your emotion at the real issue? And why don't you accept the teaching of Jesus straight from his mouth. Surely no Council can change what he has authoritatively taught?

Jim
 
before we skip straight to verbally beating the snot out of each other could I get my questions answered? I don't think I have done anything to merit not being answered, have I?

SoCM
 
Originally posted by Son of Coffee Man:
before we skip straight to verbally beating the snot out of each other could I get my questions answered? I don't think I have done anything to merit not being answered, have I?

SoCM
No, you have not done anything to merit not being answered. This thread was started by Jim with the intent of proving that the Catholic Church taught "error" and thus proving the Church is not infallible and thus a "false church" that teaches a "false gospel".

You must first understand the meaning of "infallible" as defined by the Church. The Church is using the word within a specific context, that being when offically declaring a doctrine as infallible and to be held by all the faithful of the Church. I have given a proper definition earlier in the thread.

Jim does not understand what was declared as doctrine by the Council which he has quoted (not in entirety but only partially). He says that the doctrine declared was "Hate Jews". He is incorrect.

I have asked several questions repeatedly for a specific purpose. His refusal to answer them, despite their immediate relevance to his arguement, demostrates, to me anyway, that he is not acting in good faith. I have taken a position that I will not engage him further until he has the courage to answer them.

Nothing against you. It's just where we are.

Ron
 
Originally posted by trying2understand:
Does your church allow Jews who do not accept Christ to be members? If not, why? Hatred?

Does your church observe Passover? If not, why? Hatred?

Would your church allow a person who observes Sabbath starting a sundown on Friday as a member? If not, why? Hatred?

Do you still believe that "oppressed in silence", in your original post to another thread, means that some person was kept silent?

Since you have not answered my questions, we may all assume that your church hates and has seperated from the Jews and thus is a false church and teaches a false gospel.
Just in case you missed my questions, Jim.
 
T2U,

I have been trying to keep up by reading the old posts but have not quite gotten it yet.

Could you restate what you mean by "infallibility" when refering to the Catholic church?

SoCM
 
Originally posted by trying2understand:
Jim, in offering you my definition of infallibility within the context of the Catholic Church, understand that I am not representing to "speak for the Church". My definition is meant only as a reference for further discussion and is not meant to be all inclusive nor exhaustive in scope.

Agreed?

Good.

Infallibility applies to the Pope or the Bishops when speaking in union.

The Pope is infallible when he speaks from his position of universal pastor of the Church, defining a doctrine concerning faith or morals, addressed to all the Church.

Key words:
Pastor of the Church - not as a theologian, not as Bishop of Rome, not as patriarch of the West.

Defining a doctrine - conclusively pronounces a doctrine with precision, certainty, and to the exclusion of any alternatives.

The Bishops are infallible when declaring a doctrine concerning matters of faith and morals in their authoritative teaching capacity, and they are in agreement that the particular teaching is to be held definitively by the Church.

Infallibility is not tied to the state of perfection or imperfection of any individual.

Infallibility concerns the final doctrine declared, not the motives or process involved in arriving at the doctrine.

You “hate as error” fails on all levels.

Ron
SoCM, above is my original post defining infallibility.


[ September 23, 2002, 09:07 PM: Message edited by: trying2understand ]
 
J

jimraboin

Guest
Ron,

So much double talk. If Constantine cannot be relied upon in his letters for accurately transmitting what occurred therein, then are we to believe his claim that Nicaea was free from all error? What do we believe in his letters and what do we discard? You appear to pick and chose only those things he says that fit with your personally held beliefs. I am taking everything he said and putting it all together. That is how error is easily found.

Jim
 
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