Hi there. You may be interested in a post I put in "20 years without one iota of NT Scripture", page 7. The question on this thread (I think) is, is a doctrine whose stated basis was hatred, infallable? The issue was not merely one of seperating from unbelieving Jews. It said that Christians who kept Easter on the date of Pasover were wrong. The Quartodeciman controversy was similar, and here the Roman church stated that you would be excomunicated if you kept Easter on the 14th of Nissan. That is, a believing Christian would be expelled from the church if they did this. Indeed, they would loose their salvation if they did this. This intolerance is (or should be)

hard to defend.
Acts 15 shows where the early Jewish church gave grace to the new gentile membership not to have to obey the Law. The early Jewish believers kept it, but were led by the Spirit not to force it onto gentile converts. As the gentile church became dominant, however, it lacked such grace in return. On converting to Catholicism, Jews were required to make a declaration concerning their
renunciation of everything Jewish. The following (655 CE, from Visigoth Spain) is
typical of such declarations; “I do here and now renounce every rite and observance of
the Jewish religion, detesting all its most solemn ceremonies and tenets that in former
days I kept and held. In the future I will practice no rite or celebration connected with it,
nor any custom of my past error, promising neither to seek it out or perform it ... I
promise that I will never return to the vomit of Jewish superstition ... [I will] shun all
intercourse with other Jews and have the circle of my friends only among other
Christians”. J. Parkes, The Conflict of the Church and the Synagogue (New York:
Hermon Press, 1974) 395.
In such declarations, the Catholic church opposed the teaching of the New Testament, both re love and that keeping Jewish festivals is no where spoken against, but is indeed practiced.
All the best, Colin