No it does not. The whole question of inerrancy is of the original autographs as written by the actual writers of the Books of the Bible. There is no way that any "translation" can claim this, as there are parts to each "version" of the Bible, that are not part of the original. Lets take a couple of examples. the longer ending of Mark's Gospel as found in the King James, has been shown by the great textual critic, John Burgon, to be part of his Gospel. Most modern versions either fully omit this (verse 9-20), or have the words in brackets, with some note about the textual evidence for it. then we have the woman found in adultery in John 7:53-8:11, which again is found in the KJV, but not some later versions. Even though the oldest surviving Greek manuscript that does contain these words, is not till the 6th century A.D., yet the scholar Jerome (responsible for the Latin Vulgate) says over 100 years earlier, that this passage was found in "many manuscripts, both Greek and Latin". For these examples, like others, there is a clear difference in how the passages read, which one can claim to be the "original" reading, and therefore "inerrant"?