I think there was prophecy at the house of Cornelius. Firstly, Acts 10:45-46 and 19:6 are of a piece; they are very similar. Prophecy, as I said before, is not always (or even usually) foretelling, but forthtelling- speaking forth the words of God. Secondly Acts 10:46, 'For they [Peter and his colleagues] heard them speak in tongues and magnify God.' The magnifying of God could certainly be a prophetic word. Thirdly, Acts 11:15, 'And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as on us at the beginning.' Consider Acts 2:36, 'Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God has made this Jesus whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.' This is a prophetic word, speaking forth publicly the counsel of God. If the Holy Spirit came upon Cornelius & Co the same was he came upon the apostles, they must have prophesied.
It would make as much, if not more sense to divorce verse 3 from verses 1 & 2. Verse three starts with kai just as verse 4 does and deals with the effects of this immersion just as much as verse 4.
I can't believe that you are calling Peter a liar just to support your theory!! The people ask, "Whatever could this mean?' (Acts 2:12); Peter answers, "This is what was spoken by the prophet Joel (v.16). The Holy Spirit came down on that day and He has never withdrawn Himself.
They waited in Jerusalem so that the coming of the Spirit could be witnessed by thousands of people from all over the Roman world at Pentecost and 3,000 could be saved in one day. The Spirit came down in a new, more powerful way and in that same way He has continued ever since.
Luke 3:7. 'Then [John] said to the multitudes that came out to be baptized by him, "Brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come?........."' There is no mention that these people were 'a certain group' or that John refused to baptize them. This seems clearly to have been his approach to all who come out to be baptized. He told them they were sinners and told them to 'bear fruits worthy of repentance.' He answered questions as to what this meant (Luke 3:10-14) and then presumably he baptized them if they professed repentance. Nowhere does it say that he refused to baptize anybody. Even the Pharisees seem to have made the decision not to be baptized, rather than being refused by John (Luke 7:29-30). Now bearing in mind that all this was pre-Pentecost and the coming of the Spirit in a fuller way, it is my contention that most of these people were not saved and that most of them turned away from the Lord (John 1:11; Matthew 11:18-20ff; John 6:66; John 8:31ff; Matthew 21:43). I do not believe that John 1:4-5 proves anything. It is my contention in the light of Matthew 3:5-6 that many of those repenting in Acts 2:37 would have previously been baptized by John and were given Trinitarian baptism by the apostles.
On the contrary, I do not see that JTB's words can have any other connotation. John is not saying that water baptism gives eternal life; he is saying the exact opposite. He is warning the Jews that coming out to him to be baptized will do them no good if their repentance is not genuine.
I absolutely deny that these people had eternal life absent repentance and faith in Jesus Christ, which no one without the Spirit can have (1 Corinthians 2:14).
You are opening up a whole new can of worms here. Our definition of 'baptism in the Spirit' is obviously different and I don't have time to pursue it. I have one more of your posts to reply to on another thread and then I shall be taking time out from this forum for a while. I am spending much too much time here.
Th Church came in at Pentacost, s te Holy Spirt came in the new working of now being sealed in ALL of the people of God!