Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:7-8; Luke 3:16; John 1:26; Acts 1:5; 11:16.How can there be two baptisms when the bible says there is only one baptism? "One Lord, one faith, one baptism."
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:7-8; Luke 3:16; John 1:26; Acts 1:5; 11:16.How can there be two baptisms when the bible says there is only one baptism? "One Lord, one faith, one baptism."
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost. And this one tells us when this single event took place, "not many days from now."Acts 1:5
Yep, to the Jew first then to the Gentile. And the only incident he could reference was to go clear back to the day of Pentecost. It had not happened since Pentecost. And it has not happened since acts 11.11:16.
Your understanding of the texts is incorrect (for one thing, cf. Acts 19:6), but the point of my post was to show that there are in fact not fewer than two baptisms:Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost.
Prophecy of the one time event on Pentecost. And this one tells us when this single event took place, "not many days from now."
Remember, the best way to understand scripture is to compare it to scripture.
Yep, to the Jew first then to the Gentile. And the only incident he could reference was to go clear back to the day of Pentecost. It had not happened since Pentecost. And it has not happened since acts 11.
Only two opinions. #1 There are only two or #2 Paul is a liar. I vote for option #1.So we then need to ask ourselves why Paul says that there is only one.
Your understanding of the texts is incorrect
(for one thing, cf. Acts 19:6),
At the time Ephesians had been written there was but "one" baptism and it is the baptism that follows "one faith" or water baptism as water baptism is the ONLY baptism promised to the end of the age (Mt. 28:19-20) whereas baptism in the Spirit happened TWICE (ACs 2, 10) and NEVER AGAIN because it was not a repeating baptism, but a confirmation baptism of the new "house of God" as the house of public worship and administration of the ordinances. Once confirmed, there was no need to keep reaffirming.but the point of my post was to show that there are in fact not fewer than two baptisms:
'I indeed baptize you with water......'
That's one.
'He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.' That's at least two, and I think it is actually three.
Bible Thumpin n Gun Totin, I want to go back and make an observation on this part of your opening post, regarding the way this community church building concept worked here in East Texas (and much of the South, based on research in church minutes). There was an agreement or sort of fellowship in which the churches worked together in using the same building. Sometimes they might go in together to finance the building of it. People in the community might visit churches of the other denominations when they were meeting on the different weekends. BUT -- for the Baptists at least -- their internal operations, faith and practice were completely distinct from the other churches. For example, they might cooperate with the Methodists in sharing the same building, but if a member of the Baptist Church joined the Methodists, they were summarily excluded from the church for "departing from the faith" (the faith, as in set of beliefs, not as in personal faith in Jesus). With only rare exceptions -- e.g. "union churches" which shared a preacher, finances, etc. -- this is the way it worked around here.I was at work today and saw a post by kyredneck regarding how folks used to share the same Church building. Now this is before my time, but some of my friends grandparents have told me about how the local community would alternate going to different Protestant churches. One week the Baptist Church would be open, the next week the Methodist Church would be open, and the next week the Presbyterian Church would be open. The entire community in these mountains would rotate their attendance.
How in the world can his understanding be incorrect? All but Acts11 is future tense and prophetic and Acts 1:4-5 pinpoints not only the precise time but the precise place of fulfillment if words mean anything at all. He is correct concerning Acts 11 as well as the nearest point of reference Peter could identify the baptism in the Spirit was "at the beginning" of the Spirit's manifestation on Pentecost.However, thousands had been saved SINCE Pentecost and if this was an individualized baptism he would have this has been going on since the beginning but he did not say that.
Your interpretation of Acts 19:1-6 does not make sense. John the Baptist was not ignorant of the Holy Spirit and so they could not have possibly been baptized by him. John the Baptist did not baptize in reference to himself but as Paul says with reference to repentance AND Faith in Christ(v. 4).
Acts 18:25. 'This man [Apollos] had been instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in Spirit, he spoke accurately the things of the Lord, though he knew only the baptism of John.'The problem with Apollos and these 12 is almost the same except Apollos was not re-baptized. They both did not know of the baptism of the church in the Spirit, public accreditation as the authorized administrator of the Great Commission confirmed by signs and wonders. Paul was a church sent missionary with authority to administer the ordinances and constitute churches and he reported back to his sending church after every missionary journey and submitted to their authority over him when back at his home church (Acts 15:1-3).
Acts 11:44, 46. 'While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word.........For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.'
Acts 19: 6. 'And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.'
If Acts 11 is the 'baptism of the Spirit' ('as upon us at the beginning'- v.15) then so is Acts 19. So there is at least one event that TCassidy did not mention.
But I want to look at JTB's words in Matthew 3:1-12. The context is very important. It is one of condemnation. 'But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Saducees coming to his baptism, he said to them, "Brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come? Therefore bear fruits worthy of repentance........"' Matthew gives the impression that these words were spoken only to the Pharisees and Saducees, but Luke makes it clear that the same words were spoken to the 'multitudes' (Luke 3:7-9). JTB continues (vs.10-11),
Here are the two baptisms of the Lord Jesus Christ. His own people (the 'wheat') He will baptize in the Holy Spirit; the others (the 'chaff'- cf. Psalm 1:4-6) will end up in the lake of fire (Revelation 20:15). There is, of course, only one baptism for the Christ's people: 'One Lord [Jesus Christ], one faith [in Him for salvation],one baptism' [by the Lord Jesus Christ in the Holy Spirit] The baptism spoken of in Ephesians 4:5 is not water baptism; water baptism pictures it.
Acts 18:25. 'This man [Apollos] had been instructed in the way of the Lord; and being fervent in Spirit, he spoke accurately the things of the Lord, though he knew only the baptism of John.'
Apollos had been accurately taught, but there was something he did not understand about baptism. We might argue about what it was, but surely we can agree that there was something about baptism that he was not clear about.
My only point here is that Aquilla and Priscilla did not ostracize him or debar him from the church at Ephesus on account of his faulty understanding. On the contrary, they helped him to a proper understanding (v.26).
You have not read my post. I specifically said that there was NO problem with his baptism. His problem was with his understanding of baptism. 'He knew only the baptism of John.'Your whole argument assumes there was a problem with his baptism
You have not read my post. I specifically said that there was NO problem with his baptism. His problem was with his understanding of baptism. 'He knew only the baptism of John.'
The Church of Rome went Apostate centuries ago, and sealed its doom when refusing to change and accept the Reformation God sent unto it...
Not protesting, but did restore the true Gospel!
When? date and time? Empty accusation. How about providing actual proof, you don't even provide fake proof.
If it was never the church it was never to be "reformed".
Nobody denies the church at Rome was not at one time a true church of Christ as the book of Romans proves it was. However, Rome departed from and perverted the doctrine of salvation plainly spelled out in the book of Romans.
Nobody responds to you because your responses are irrational and without the use of sound exegetical evidences.
Acts 10:44, 46. 'While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word.........For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.'Let us be true to the texts. The first text in Acts 11 is specifically identified as the baptism in the Spirit while the second is not specfically defined as the baptism in the Spirit and for good reasons as I will now explain.
To try and divorce v.4 from Acts 1-3 is very artificial. Verses 3-4 are joined by the conjunction kai and there is no reason why all four verses should not be one sentence.On the day of Pentecost the baptism in the Spirit is described in Acts 2:1-3 while tongues was in addition to it as was being "filled" with the Spirit.
OK.I just want to now explain the baptism in the Spirit from my perspective so you will see why I disagree with you, so just humor me for right now and follow my line of thinking.
I can agree with most of this, I think. There seems to be another mini-Pentecost in Acts 8:14-17 with the coming of the Gospel to the Samaritans. There must have been something visible in the receiving of the Holy Spirit for Simon Magus to observe in v.18.1. If the baptism in the Spirit is the same thing that had previously occurred to the tabernacle in Exodus 40:35 AFTER it was completed, and to the Temple in 2 Chron. 7:1-3 AFTER it was completed and now to the church of God in Acts 2:1-3 AFTER it was completed, then it would have been necessary to prove to Israel that a new house of God had been completed to replace the temple as the public house of worship or else they would not accept it as a new "house of God."
2.God repeated this divine authentication upon the BELIEVING Gentiles BECAUSE believing Gentiles in the former "house of God" were divided from believing Jews by a "middle wall of separation" but God required in his new house of public worship for believing Gentiles to be "added unto them" exactly as described in Acts 2:40-41 on EQUAL BASIS thus removing the "middle wall of partitition" that was errected between believing Gentiles and believing jews in the former house of God so water baptism could be administered to them bring them to church membership, and this explains Peter's question "Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized"
3. The gift of tongues and being "filled" with the Spirit was in ADDITION to the baptism in the Spirit and the gift of tongues was designed to be THE SIGN TO THE JEWS that their Messiah had come, rather than preaching a gospel that he is yet to come. When the believing Gentiles manifested this sign gift it was for THE JEWS PRESENT as an additional confirmation that God accepted them as equal members in the new house of God whose mission was FIRST to the Jews (Jerusalem, Judaea..) and then to the Samaritans and Gentiles.,God did this for the JEWS present to let them know they ought to receive them into church membership and on an equal basis or else they NEVER WOULD.
4. Hence, the immersion in the Spirit was a ONE time event upon the new house of God as it had been a ONE time event on every previous house of God, but the exception was to confirm Gentiles on an equal basis in this house of God. Tongues along with other sign gifts were the CONTINUING affirmation of this baptized in the Spirit house of God until the purpose of tongues ceased by the rejection of Israel as a nation of their Messiah and the purpose of other sign gifts ceased with the completion of the Biblical canon.
As I have already said, I see no difference between Acts 10:44, 46 and Acts 19:6. When the Shekinah Glory came down to the temple in 2 Chronicles 7:1-3, it remained until Ezekiel saw it leave in Ezekiel 10. The priests who entered the Holiest Place once a year were entering the very presence of God whether they were aware of it or not. Likewise, at Pentecost, the Spirit came down 'on all flesh' (Joel 2:28) but He did not disappear again. Every believer is baptized in the Holy Spirit (Romans 8:9). 'He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.' The 'you' here applied to the Jews of Matt. 3, to the as yet unbaptized Cornelius and his friends of Acts 10, and to the recently baptized disciples in Ephesus, and it applies to new believers today. It is true that Pentecost can never be repeated, but Pentecost has never been rescinded.Notice, that it is not "tongues" alone that occurs in Acts 19:6 but also the sign gift of "prophecy" both as confirmation of idenity with the new baptized house of God in the Spirit. There is no further mention of any repeated baptism but only the repetition of SIGN gifts that characterized the true churches of God until Israel rejected the messiah and the biblical canon was completed.
Acts 19: 6. 'And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues AND PROPHESIED."
I think you misunderstand what I am arguing for here. I agree that there is only one Pentecost, with a small number of mini-repetitions to bring the news to various different areas and/or peoples. The 'sign gifts' were there to bring attention to it (and to fulfil the prophecy of Isaiah 28:11-12). Those gifts have served their purpose and disappeared. The Holy Spirit remains in and with believers forever (John 14:16).Conclusion: Your view requires the repetition of the baptism in the Spirit as much as the repetition of tongues. However, with regard to the baptism in the Spirit the nearest reference point Peter could offer was "at the beginning" upon the church whereas for the gift of tongues that was a continuing ministry toward the Jews. Also the very same language used for the baptism in the Spirit is repeatedly used from Matthew 3:11 to Acts 11:15-16. However, after Acts 11:15-16 we never hear this same descriptive language ever again in Scripture.
You have been very naughty here. Baptizo in Matthew 3:11 is Present Tense, not Aorist. Luke 3:7 shows that he spoke to the people before baptizing them. The whole point of what John is saying is that water baptism will do them not a penny's worth of good unless they possess what water baptism signifies- baptism in the Holy Spirit. And the very same thing is true today. What distresses me most about Baptist churches today is that they baptize people who show no signs at all of being converted. That is a dreadful wickedness, sending people to hell with a pocket-full of false promises in their hands, and the Pastors of such churches will not escape judgement for it (Ezekiel 2:18; James 3:1).Martin the languague is clear in all passages that two distinct groups of people are before him. There are those standing before him whom he had baptized in water professing their sins and faith in Christ (Messiah - Jn. 3:36; Acts 19:4). There were those who rejected his gospel and gospel ordinance whose end would be firey destruction by being immersed in the Lake of Fire. Hence, he was preaching the typical Jn. 3:16 message - believe and have eternal life OR PERISH!
However, you are failing to see that the baptism in the Spirit is directed ONLY to water baptized believers in Christ "I baptized [sic] YOU with water, but he shall baptize YOU.." On the day of Pentecost the only recipients were those baptized believers in Christ (Acts 1:21-22; 2:1).
There is no promise whatever attached to water baptism unless one is converted. Simon Magus could tell you that.Martin, the baptism in fire was never a baptism connected with water baptized believers in Christ but Ephesians 4:5 is about "one baptism" connected with water baptized beleivers in Christ in the congregation at Ephesus and other NT. congregations. The only baptism of PROMISE that endures to the end of the age is water baptism in the Great Commission. No other baptism is PROMISED to endure to the end of the age.
Acts 10:44, 46. 'While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word.........For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.'
Acts 19: 6. 'And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.'
I am very happy for people to consider these two texts and make their own minds up. In Acts 10, the identification with the baptism of the Spirit is not given. The explanation is only given in 11:15-16 when Peter is being cross-examined. But the two events are two similar not to have the same meaning. To prophesy means to forthtell as well as to foretell. To magnify God is, if it is done Biblically, prophecy.
To try and divorce v.4 from Acts 1-3 is very artificial. Verses 3-4 are joined by the conjunction kai and there is no reason why all four verses should not be one sentence.
Likewise, at Pentecost, the Spirit came down 'on all flesh' (Joel 2:28) but He did not disappear again. Every believer is baptized in the Holy Spirit (Romans 8:9). 'He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.'
You have been very naughty here. Baptizo in Matthew 3:11 is Present Tense, not Aorist. Luke 3:7 shows that he spoke to the people before baptizing them.
The whole point of what John is saying is that water baptism will do them not a penny's worth of good unless they possess what water baptism signifies- baptism in the Holy Spirit.
There is no promise whatever attached to water baptism unless one is converted. Simon Magus could tell you that.
The Holy Spirit did come down on 'all flesh' on the day of Pentecost.No, He did not come down on "all flesh" on the day of Pentecost but upon only 120 that had gathered on the Day of Pentecost "in one accord in one place." If the Holy Spirit had come down upon "all flesh" on that day there would have been no need for them to wait in Jerusalem, as they could have waited anywhere. The Joel prophecy is referring to the extent of the commission or salvation that would extend to the Gentiles as described in Acts 1:8 which is another work of the Spirit after His coming.