Indeed they are not, but I wanted to see how the Theologians view this manner.Originally posted by Scott J:
27 'When he has made her drink the water, then it shall come about, if she has defiled herself and has been unfaithful to her husband, that the water which brings a curse will go into her and cause bitterness, and her abdomen will swell and her thigh will waste away, and the woman will become a curse among her people.
These verses are not written in code. They say what they say. You demand scripture that explicitly rather than implicitly disproves your position... then you allow yourself to write between the lines.
Given the above verse, if the women had become pregnant, and her stomach swelled, and her thighs rotted, do you think she would miscarry like most texts on the subject agree would occur, or do you think this was an oversight on God's part? Or do you think the author erred in writing the details? Or do you think that each time a woman was pregnant, that her stomach would swell, her thighs would rot, and she would still give birth to a healthy baby to prove some miracle had happened, but then be barren by another miracle right after the birth.
Are there any other possibilities I left out? The only one that sounds reasonable is that this was a way to prove the woman was with child. Because then the child would die inside her and start to rot, it would then be expelled between her thighs. It would also be a clear sign that she had sex with someone else. And a way to kill the "love" child at the same time. Since a fetus this young could not take a first breath, it is not murder and well within the rest of scripture to abort.
Another argument could be made that even if the fetus is a person, it isn't murder because of the classification of the person. For example a serial killer is a person, but to kill him is not murder. The reason it is not murder, is because the Bible tells us it is ok to kill this person.
The extended argument would be that because the person in the womb is not yet born, it could be killed without being murder. The reason it is not murder, is because the Bible tells us it is ok to kill this person before the first breath.
The compound argument is that, is it right to kill the person just because the Bible says it is all right to kill this person? We can't say that it is wrong to kill this type of person because God says it is wrong. No, it is clear that God gives us permission to kill this person; we have then applied secular laws to determine more clearly under what conditions etc. I see no problem with doing that same thing with abortion. BUT YOU CAN'T SAY GOD IS AGAINST KILLING PEOPLE UNDER CERTAIN CONDITIONS. This applies to serial killers and to fetuses under the 5-month mark.