Not in the understanding of federal or natural headship. The key is no human father. A woman who has had sex(inside of marriage) is no more sinful than then virgin.Jesus would inherit sinful mature though...
Sent from my SM-G935P using Tapatalk
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Not in the understanding of federal or natural headship. The key is no human father. A woman who has had sex(inside of marriage) is no more sinful than then virgin.Jesus would inherit sinful mature though...
What woman?There was an mediate fulfillment of the young woman in his time, but also greater fulfillment of Virgin born Messiah.
I don't need to address your point because you missed my point and started down a road where you demand that I address heresy.You didn't address my point. If Jesus was not God in the womb then he would need to acquire his divinity at some point in his life. (I'm not saying this couldn't have happened) But once you go down this road you run into other, thorny questions about the Trinity.
The King James error has been very influential. That doesn't change the original language or the meaning of the text.I mean that very few translations have "young woman" here. Most have "virgin".
Absolutely false.You have not denied it; you have said it is unimportant.
The virgin birth of Jesus [..] is NOT essential to faith and it is probably NOT the way to introduce people to Jesus.
If the virgin birth is as important as the resurrection, then both Mark and John would have included it.
No. A person being born of a man and woman does not automatically make them a liar/deceiver. Or was John the Baptist a liar/deceiver?H ewould have been if was born in a natural fashion though!
That a young woman (we don't necessarily know who this is) would conceive and give birth (9 months) and would know enough to "reject evil and choose what is right" (see Isaiah 7:16) which would indicate a child reaching a moral awakening. I would say that it is a prophecy of God's deliverance within about 10 years or so.But what sign did Ahaz receive?
Just because we don't have all the details doesn't mean it didn't happen.We know of no qualifing birth by an "alma".
Not false at all! Fulfilled in Ahaz's day.Was the prohecy false in Ahaz's day or just unknown?
Defeat of Syria and Israel.Was the birth of the child the sign or was the defeat of Syria and Israel of verse 17?
I agree. Then why would a typological Christ need to be born in Ahaz's day? How would Ahaz regonize this Immanuel? I can think of no other prohecy from God that came to pass and we don't know how it was fullfilled.Defeat of Syria and Israel.
The wife of the Prophet, as sign to the King.What woman?
The two tradtional views dont work. Hezekiah was already born and Isaiah's wife was not an "alma".
Sent from my SM-G935P using Tapatalk
The wife of the prohet was not an "alma". It has never been used to refer to a married woman. And this one has already had a previous child. Nor did she call the prophet's second son Immanuel. The term "alma" can not refer to her.The wife of the Prophet, as sign to the King.
He was a sinner from birth.No. A person being born of a man and woman does not automatically make them a liar/deceiver. Or was John the Baptist a liar/deceiver?
It could be in the sense of theyoung woman, as both that and virgin are permitted in theHebrew, but the Spirit qualified it to be really referring to Virgin for Mary, as Mother of Messiah!The wife of the prohet was not an "alma". It has never been used to refer to a married woman. And this one has already had a previous child. Nor did she call the prophet's second son Immanuel. The term "alma" can not refer to her.
Sent from my SM-G935P using Tapatalk
I agree with the last half of the statement. But the Hebrew does not allow "alma" to ever refer to a married woman who has given birth to a previous child. That woman would not be a "alma". My view is that before this child is born, Syria and Israel would fall. That was the sign to Ahaz. The child Immanuel did not see fullfillment until the virgin birth of Jesus. The sign of the Israel and Syria's defeat would also serve as proof that the Messiah was coming from a "alma". Which happened to be the virgin Mary. Who fits the term perfectly.It could be in the sense of theyoung woman, as both that and virgin are permitted in theHebrew, but the Spirit qualified it to be really referring to Virgin for Mary, as Mother of Messiah!
That view would be acceptable also, and think that we both agree that the Virgin Birth has to be held with , as an essential of the Faith!I agree with the last half of the statement. But the Hebrew does not allow "alma" to ever refer to a married woman who has given birth to a previous child. That woman would not be a "alma". My view is that before this child is born, Syria and Israel would fall. That was the sign to Ahaz. The child Immanuel did not see fullfillment until the virgin birth of Jesus. The sign of the Israel and Syria's defeat would also serve as proof that the Messiah was coming from a "alma". Which happened to be the virgin Mary. Who fits the term perfectly.
Sent from my SM-G935P using Tapatalk
The prophecy was to both Ahaz and Israel of that time, andalso to full/greater fulfillment with Mary and Jesus. To deny the Vurgin Birth, one denies Original Sin, and also would have Jesus being sinless due to him being perfect in keeping the Law, which He was, and not due to His sinless mature.if the virgin birth is not important, than why is it in the word of God? We should never minimize any portion of the word of God.
Also, someone claims Is 7:14 was only to Ahaz:
12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the Lord.
13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?
14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
this is from the KJV, in the KJV you and ye are plural, and thee and thou are singular. Because Ahaz would not ask for a sing, God then proclaimed he would give a sign to the house of David, he would give YOU PLURAL a sign. the sign is to the house of Israel, as a whole. Not to mention that Matthew quotes it as a prophecy of Christ.
This thread is starting to smell of liberalism and modernism.
Too late to fix this in my original post, but this should read:Essential to faith <> unimportant.
So the belief in the Vurgin Birth not essential to hold with?Too late to fix this in my original post, but this should read:
NOT essential to faith <> not important.
I hope the context carried the meaning previously.
Says who?Jesus would inherit sinful mature though...
His being born of a virgin indicates he had no earthly father and thus was not cursed with the sin nature passed through the federal headship of Adam.