Darron Steele
New Member
FundamentalOnly: you did not offer anything new that has not been addressed on this thread -- except your extract from Romans 6:2-11.
There is good reason that your teaching is "against the grain" at your congregation. It is similar to the reasons why church congregations which teach `salvation by completed baptism' often try to marginalize anyone among them who reaches Scripturally-accurate conclusions on this subject. The reasons: Scripture does not teach `salvation only upon completed baptism,' and anyone who comes to accurate conclusions of Scripture will oppose such a teaching as well.
It is evident from reading the entirety of Romans 6:2-11 that Paul is using metaphors to make a point: we should treat ourselves as having died to sin.
How do we know that Romans 6:2-11 is using illustrations? Literal reality is that we have not died to sin -- 1 John 1:8-10 makes clear that we still sin. I did not undergo crucifixion -- Romans 6:6. Romans 6:5 also makes it clear: we are baptized "in the likeness of his death."
I think it is strange that you make an exception. If salvation depends upon us arising from a baptism pool, then I do not see how Scripture warrants we can claim exceptions. Scripture does not describe multiple salvation processes, and I think Hebrews specifies that for Christians there is "so great a salvation" -- singular.
As for the rest, with a few adaptations:
There is good reason that your teaching is "against the grain" at your congregation. It is similar to the reasons why church congregations which teach `salvation by completed baptism' often try to marginalize anyone among them who reaches Scripturally-accurate conclusions on this subject. The reasons: Scripture does not teach `salvation only upon completed baptism,' and anyone who comes to accurate conclusions of Scripture will oppose such a teaching as well.
It is evident from reading the entirety of Romans 6:2-11 that Paul is using metaphors to make a point: we should treat ourselves as having died to sin.
How do we know that Romans 6:2-11 is using illustrations? Literal reality is that we have not died to sin -- 1 John 1:8-10 makes clear that we still sin. I did not undergo crucifixion -- Romans 6:6. Romans 6:5 also makes it clear: we are baptized "in the likeness of his death."
I think it is strange that you make an exception. If salvation depends upon us arising from a baptism pool, then I do not see how Scripture warrants we can claim exceptions. Scripture does not describe multiple salvation processes, and I think Hebrews specifies that for Christians there is "so great a salvation" -- singular.
As for the rest, with a few adaptations:
Darron Steele said:Let me start out by saying that I am avid advocate that Christians get baptized. I believe Scripture teaches that Christians should be baptized and as close to pronto as doable. The question I am answering is not `Do Christians have to be baptized?' because the answer to that is yes. The question I am addressing is if baptism is possible without baptism.
These four are "`in your face'" teaching that even believers will be unsaved if they fail to get themselves baptized?
Acts 22:16 -- is the "wash away thy sins" referring to baptism, or "calling on the name of the Lord"?
John 3:5 -- is that talking about baptism? It says "born of water and the Spirit" if I am not mistaken. Given how ancient Hebrew terminology described natural birth, and John 3:3-6, I have a problem believing this passage is talking about baptism.
Mark 16:16, assuming the authenticity of anything after Mark 16:8. "Mark 16:16" goes "He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned" (NKJV). I am missing where it says that `he who believes but is not baptized will be condemned also.'
Acts 2:38 follows Acts 2:37, which asks "brethren, what shall we do" (ASV emphasis mine). Peter replied in Acts 2:38. I present his reply translated with more precision than English is capable of: "Arrependei-vos, e cada um de vós seja batizado em nome de Jesus Cristo, para remissão de vossos pecados” (VRA). What I do not see is a statement of the following nature: `In the general case, people who fail to get baptized will not have their sins taken away.' The word order parallels English, but the grammatical structure points us to `Repent for the remission of sins' and embedded in that is a directive to respond to this repentance by getting themselves baptized.
1 Peter 3:21, in reference to water, when Peter is not cut off mid-sentence: "Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (NASB). Peter made it clear that the bath in water does not save us. He made it clear that the "appeal to God for a good conscience" is what saves us.
Peter never contradicted himself, nor would he contradict the teachings of Jesus Christ. The passages that follow ARE "in your face."
John 3:16-8“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God sent not the Son into the world to |condemn| the world; but that the world should be saved through him. |Whoever| believeth on him is not |condemned|: he that believeth not hath been |condemned| already, because he hath not believed on the name of the only begotten Son of God” (ASV with |TNIV|).The passage expressly says "he that believeth on him is not condemned."
Peter echoed this teaching of Jesus Christ at Acts 10:43 “everyone that believeth on him shall receive remission of sins” (ASV).
These are universal statements and explicit statements. No person who believes on the Lord Jesus Christ will be condemned. Every person who believes on the Lord Jesus Christ will "receive remission of sins." This includes those who believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, yet by some mistake or some misfortune were not baptized.
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