Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
If we are saved the same way as those in the OT, i.e. by faith, would not it be reasonable to assume that we are lost in the same manner as those were in the OT? Again we are looking for the cause of sins malady as recorded in the OT or that speaks to those in the OT. Can anyone show us one verse fromn the OT that states or implies that the Gentiles were lost due to their rejection of Jesus Christ?
How were the Gentiles to hear of the Messiah, being banned from the temple and not even being an object of the covenant God gave to the Jews? If God desired to give the gospel to the Gentiles in the OT, He sure had a peculiar way of showing it. Listen tho the passage in Amos. Am 3:2 "You ONLY have I known of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities."
Doesn’t Ephesians paint an opposite view of that purported by some that state God grants to all men the opportunity of salvation and that the damning sin is the rejection of that offer?
Ephesians 2: 11 ¶ Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Does not this passage state clearly that the Gentiles, at least as a whole, were alienated from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God? Where do we find that God offered all the Gentiles in the OT the right to partake of his covenant with the Jews? If an uncircumcised Gentile even tried to enter the sanctuary he would have been killed, would he not? Again, a strange way to offer the same hope to all as some proclaim is the case.
If the damning sin is the rejection of Jesus Christ, how were the Gentiles to be blamed eternally for rejecting an offer that they had specifically, as a whole, been alienated from according to Scripture?
How were the Gentiles to hear of the Messiah, being banned from the temple and not even being an object of the covenant God gave to the Jews? If God desired to give the gospel to the Gentiles in the OT, He sure had a peculiar way of showing it. Listen tho the passage in Amos. Am 3:2 "You ONLY have I known of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities."
Doesn’t Ephesians paint an opposite view of that purported by some that state God grants to all men the opportunity of salvation and that the damning sin is the rejection of that offer?
Ephesians 2: 11 ¶ Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Does not this passage state clearly that the Gentiles, at least as a whole, were alienated from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God? Where do we find that God offered all the Gentiles in the OT the right to partake of his covenant with the Jews? If an uncircumcised Gentile even tried to enter the sanctuary he would have been killed, would he not? Again, a strange way to offer the same hope to all as some proclaim is the case.
If the damning sin is the rejection of Jesus Christ, how were the Gentiles to be blamed eternally for rejecting an offer that they had specifically, as a whole, been alienated from according to Scripture?