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Is Divorce a Sin?

I

Istherenotacause

New Member
Originally posted by dianetavegia:
I had a thought....

If someone has an abortion... the child cannot be brought back to life so if divorce is a 'permanent' sin then abortion would be constant murder, would it not?

If someone has sex before marriage, they cannot regain their virginity so they would be a fornicator forever?

All sin has consequences, like King David and Bathsheba's child dying... but God forgave David his sin.... even tho he did punish him. David did not repent of his sin until Nathan called him on it and pointed it out to him, and yet David was "a man after God's OWN heart".

Diane

p.s. Laura, Brother Ricky gives a lot of people StarTrek names. He does it affectionately. Us southerner's have a weird sense of humor.
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Only problem with David's sin with Bathsheba is that the sword never departed from his house. We don't ever "get away" with sin because of grace, and we must realize by David's example the consequences of sin. The child was only the first of David's offspring to die, look at the terror in David's life as his own son, Absolam, tried to take over his reign and how he died. Look at all the heartache David suffered, all due to his sin with Bathsheba and the murder of Uriah the Hittite.

Those who feel they are escaped from the consequences of adultry are wrong. Yes we are forgiven, (not including myself as divorced, God rescued our marriage), but we will harvest some fruit due to the sin of divorce, or any sin, especially in the homefront. I suggest we start begging God for crop failure.

Paul begged the Lord three times to remove the thorn from his side, the messenger of satan to buffet him, (not Jimmy! it had nothing to do with a pop-top). Was Paul divorced? No, he was never married, (what a blessed man!). But the Lord's reply was,"My grace is sufficient for thee". Everytime Paul could feel the thorn, all he had to do is call upon the Lord, reminding Him of His words, and that Balm of Gilead would take it's due course to relieve the pain! Hallelujah! (and yall thought I was heartless and void of conscience!)

Oh, BTW, are those family portraits of laura and one of her siblings with the long tongue and the big teeth? ( :D
)?

Maybe they're Klingons! :eek:
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L

latterrain77

New Member
Hi BaptistInRichmond. You said; King David put away his wives, and married the wife of Uriah the Hittite.

2 Sam. 11 and 12 does not say that King David "put away" his wives to marry Bathsheba (Uriah's wife).

You said; God sent Nathan to David to tell him that God was going to pronounce judgment upon his house for his adultery.

The judgment was because of David's pre-meditated murder of Uriah the Hittite, and that judgment came AFTER that murder (2 Sam. 11: 15, 2 Sam. 11: 24-25, 2 Sam. 12: 9-10). David had ALEADY committed adultery with Bathsheeba BEFORE he murdered Uriah (2 Sam. 11: 4). Thanks! latterrain77
 
H

hsmom3

New Member
I was reading in a study on Esther this morning and was shocked when the author said Esther was married to a divorced man (the king). I took out the Scripture and read it and it seems to be the case. Any thoughts on that, guys and gals??
 
T

Tonya R

New Member
This debate with all the personal stuff flying back and forth is getting to be a little disappointing.
No one has even brought up the present indicative and how the continual aspect of it may be flawed.
 
B

Baptist in Richmond

Active Member
Latterrain77 writes:
>>Hi BaptistInRichmond.

Hey Latterrain77, always good to hear from you.

>>You said; King David put away his wives, and
>>married the wife of Uriah the Hittite.
>>2 Sam. 11 and 12 does not say that King
>>David "put away" his wives to marry Bathsheba
>>(Uriah's wife).

Your statement is correct in that it is not the actual text, which is why I did not cite it as a direct quote. For the purposes of my thought in referencing this event, however, David did indeed commit adultery.

>>You said; God sent Nathan to David to tell him
>>that God was going to pronounce judgment upon
>>his house for his adultery. The judgment was
>>because of David's pre-meditated murder of
>>Uriah the Hittite, and that judgment came
>>AFTER that murder (2 Sam. 11: 15,
>>2 Sam. 11: 24-25, 2 Sam. 12: 9-10). David had
>>ALEADY committed adultery with Bathsheeba
>>BEFORE he murdered Uriah (2 Sam. 11: 4).

If you are saying that God only pronounced judgement only for the sin of murder, then I very much disagree with you on this.
You quoted II Sam. 11: 24-25, read verses 26 and 27. Additionally, you quoted II Sam. 12: 9-10.
Quoting verse 10 (KJV):
"Now therefore the sword shall never depart from thine house; because thou has despised me, and hast taken the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be thy wife."
Also, read verses 11 and 12.

I am not sure why you quote II Samuel 11:4. That pertains the law of Moses, detailed in the Book of Leviticus.

Hope this post finds you well.
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I

Istherenotacause

New Member
James 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.

David was tempted by his staying home when he should have been at the battle with the rest of his men. Knowing the men were at battle is why Bathsheba was on the rooftop bathing. David began to lust after Bathesheba and devised his plan to get her into the king's bed chambers. This is the degression of temptation into lust, his lust then enticed him into sin, his sin brought about the deaths of many, including Uriah the Hittite.

David knew he could not legally take Bathsheba to wife unless Uriah was dead. Hmmm? And we still wonder if it's allright to re-marry after divorce?

How can one sin justify the second? The third? and so on and so on?

Those who attempt to justify their divorce and re-marriage by examples in the Bible fail to see Jeremiah 3 as God's example of His remaining married unto Israel inspite of her adulty. God only gave her a "bill" of divorcement. A "bill" is not a law. Jeremiah 3:14 clearly states that the LORD is "married unto you" the "you" being Israel.

Oh, yes! Divorce is a sin, so is the re-marriage w/o the death of that other spouse BEFORE re-marriage takes place, BUT! one can find forgivenss in the sight of God, (Psalms 51), and should be able to in the sight of Christians as well!
 
W

wizofoz

New Member
Oh, yes! Divorce is a sin, so is the re-marriage w/o the death of that other spouse BEFORE re-marriage takes place, BUT! one can find forgivenss in the sight of God, (Psalms 51), and should be able to in the sight of Christians as well!
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So, I'm not living in a constant state of sin by being remarried. I have been forgiven by God.
Is this correct?
 
B

Baptist in Richmond

Active Member
Istherenotacause writes:
>>Those who attempt to justify their divorce and
>>re-marriage by examples in the Bible fail to
>>see Jeremiah 3 as God's example of His
>>remaining married unto Israel inspite of her
>>adulty. God only gave her a "bill" of
>>divorcement. A "bill" is not a law. Jeremiah
>>3:14 clearly states that the LORD is "married
>>unto you" the "you" being Israel.

I am not sure I follow you here: who "justif[ied] their divorce and re-marriage by examples in the Bible?" I don't remember anybody justifying their divorce.
 
I

Istherenotacause

New Member
Originally posted by Tonya R:
Here is an article you might want to check out. Kind of dispenses with the idea that a second marriage is continual adultery: Present Indicative, I urge you to read if you are divorced and remarried
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Tonya, I'm neither divorced or re-married, but I did go to this site. I read the first thre paragraphs and then sort of scanned through all the "fluff' to get to the bottom of the report. The following is the last two sentences of the entire study:

The context of Matthew 9:3-12 involves a discussion of a general truth, and in Jesus' statement of that truth "moichatai" must be taken as a "gnomic present" in which continuity is not under consideration. Now continuity may or may not be involved, but it is not legitimate to appeal to the Greek present indicative to assert that it must be involved.

After reading the first three paragraphs, I then incorporate these last two statements and come to the conclusion, that the author has not come to any conclusion but a big "if". That is exactly what the devil has used his entire existence is the word "if".

If one really wants to know what the LORD , Himself feels about divorce, one must do an indepth study of Jeremiah 3, I would stick with the King James Bible on this one, you can't go wrong.

The LORD did "put her away" and give Israel a writing of divorcement, but the putting away is a separation, not a divorce. A "bill" of divorcement is not a legal action, but only an indication of a law and not yet passed by legislative action, else in verse 14 He never would have made the statement,"for I am married unto you". Also He would have cut her off and never accepted her repentence.

Jesus clearly states that Moses allowed a writing of divorcement, note that He doesn't say "bill", due to the hardness of a man's heart. The LORD is NOT hard-hearted, aren't we glad!

Mark 10:5 And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.
6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

we had better pay more attention to what Jesus said more than the Pharisees. Jesus is right, the Pharisees are stumblingblocks.

In His Holy Service,

Brother Ricky
 
I

Istherenotacause

New Member
Originally posted by Baptist in Richmond:
Istherenotacause writes:
>>Those who attempt to justify their divorce and
>>re-marriage by examples in the Bible fail to
>>see Jeremiah 3 as God's example of His
>>remaining married unto Israel inspite of her
>>adulty. God only gave her a "bill" of
>>divorcement. A "bill" is not a law. Jeremiah
>>3:14 clearly states that the LORD is "married
>>unto you" the "you" being Israel.

I am not sure I follow you here: who "justif[ied] their divorce and re-marriage by examples in the Bible?" I don't remember anybody justifying their divorce.
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I haven't read this entire thread, but have run into many who claim the "exception" clause, that is to whom I am referring.
 
B

Baptist in Richmond

Active Member
Sorry, misunderstood your statements.
Guess that is why I didn't follow......

Wow, I feel like Captain Kirk after he found out the real reason Mr. Spock comandeered the Enterprise and plotted the course to Talos IV.....
 
I

Istherenotacause

New Member
Originally posted by wizofoz:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Oh, yes! Divorce is a sin, so is the re-marriage w/o the death of that other spouse BEFORE re-marriage takes place, BUT! one can find forgivenss in the sight of God, (Psalms 51), and should be able to in the sight of Christians as well!
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So, I'm not living in a constant state of sin by being remarried. I have been forgiven by God.
Is this correct? </font>[/QUOTE]Automatically? No. But can they still go to heaven? Yes. The same way a rich man can enter as a camel can go through the eye of the needle, (eye of the needle being that passage that a traveler could still enter through a narrow tunnel of the wall and his camel, having to crouch down in a position of humility to get through) So arrogant , prideful, stiff-necked camels can't!

The statement." For they neither marry, or are given in marriage" fully indicates divorced people can be in Heaven, but it doesn't mean they automatically get into Heaven.

In His Holy Service,

Brother Ricky
 
H

hsmom3

New Member
Originally posted by Istherenotacause:
I haven't read this entire thread, but have run into many who claim the "exception" clause, that is to whom I am referring.
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Brother, do you deny that the exemption clause is there? Should we tear it from our Bibles?

Thank you for your thoughts.
 
I

Istherenotacause

New Member
Originally posted by Baptist in Richmond:
Sorry, misunderstood your statements.
Guess that is why I didn't follow......

Wow, I feel like Captain Kirk after he found out the real reason Mr. Spock comandeered the Enterprise and plotted the course to Talos IV.....
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Hey! Watch-it now, I'm the one playing "Kirk", well, in another thread anyway.
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Scotty sure was surprized!
 
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