Who has suggested we are to "Break the law?" here? Have I missed this? I have read multiple posts where the poster doesn't think it applies, but that is not the same thing.
What is the 'jurisdiction' of "the law"? It never applied to me, as an unsaved Gentile, for I never had "the law" in the first place. (Rom. 2:14)
Does it apply to me now? Nope! I am not "under the law". (Rom. 6:14)
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I, and we who are Christians, in fact, are dead to the law; free from the law; loosed from the law; delivered from the law; dead through the law; and redeemed from the law. I have already posted these things before, so will not go into the great detail again, for if it fell on deaf ears then, it probably will again, and I am not physically able to go through this all again, at this time. I will give a link to the thread, where I posted all this, before, at the end of thes notes. I want to center on two things, here. To whom does the law speak?
The second thing has to do with "dead to the law" (Rom. 7:4; Gal. 2:19) I will refresh your memory of a somewhat infamous individual in our recent history, the late Ken Lay of ENRON infamy. You may recall that he was convicted and sentenced to prison for his role in this. He appealed, and while awaiting his appeals and perhaps actual incarceration, died of a heart attack. HIs conviction was set aside. Why? Because he was really a 'good guy'? Hardly. But he was not able, as he had died, to make his appeal, and the conviction was taken away, for that reason. I died in Jesus Christ. Each and every demand the law could have ever had on me, were it even applicable is no longer valid. Why? The law has no claim on a dead person.
Dead? ("He's dead, Jim!")
Case closed!
Ed
What is the 'jurisdiction' of "the law"? It never applied to me, as an unsaved Gentile, for I never had "the law" in the first place. (Rom. 2:14)
Does it apply to me now? Nope! I am not "under the law". (Rom. 6:14)
.
I, and we who are Christians, in fact, are dead to the law; free from the law; loosed from the law; delivered from the law; dead through the law; and redeemed from the law. I have already posted these things before, so will not go into the great detail again, for if it fell on deaf ears then, it probably will again, and I am not physically able to go through this all again, at this time. I will give a link to the thread, where I posted all this, before, at the end of thes notes. I want to center on two things, here. To whom does the law speak?
Hence, it does not speak to me, since as we have seen, we are not under the law.19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. (Rom. 3:19 - NKJV)
The second thing has to do with "dead to the law" (Rom. 7:4; Gal. 2:19) I will refresh your memory of a somewhat infamous individual in our recent history, the late Ken Lay of ENRON infamy. You may recall that he was convicted and sentenced to prison for his role in this. He appealed, and while awaiting his appeals and perhaps actual incarceration, died of a heart attack. HIs conviction was set aside. Why? Because he was really a 'good guy'? Hardly. But he was not able, as he had died, to make his appeal, and the conviction was taken away, for that reason. I died in Jesus Christ. Each and every demand the law could have ever had on me, were it even applicable is no longer valid. Why? The law has no claim on a dead person.
Dead? ("He's dead, Jim!")
Case closed!
Ed