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Is God Patient With His Decree?

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
I see too many instances where the Calvinist will arbitrarily say that God’s response to humans is only anthropomorphic language and should not be taken literally. It is an inconsistency that gives free rein for someone to say that anything is anthropological, including Predestination. Where do we draw the line?

This is just me, but I am more comfortable believing that God is able communicate with us in straightforward manner. If the Holy Spirit says that He is longsuffering, I think He really means that He is longsuffering and if He didn’t really mean it that way, He would have said it differently.

That’s my take. I hope it made sense.
His longsuffering and patience is tied into His own chosen people, as He is willing to put with a great deal with them in order to make sure they will become His people and be the sheep of the great Shephard of their souls
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Ok, I understand what you are saying now.

Scholars see this as “anthropological” (sp?) condescension with references to God.

It means God has revealed Himself by comparisons to human beings so we can understand Him.

He is said to have eyes and hands and feet. He is Father. Jesus is Son. He is said to become angry, grieve, have joy and be longsuffering.

All of it is true, as for as the comparison goes, but God is unlike any other entity in the universe. We can never truly comprehend completely.

So, scripture says God is longsuffering towards vessels of wrath in order to display the riches of His glory to His vessels of mercy.

In the very same passage, scripture tells us God has created both (decreed) for this very purpose. I see that as being completely logical, as God is attempting to communicate a divine truth in a manner we are capable of understanding. He is longsuffering (patient) and merciful.

Peace to you
This is said very well, as would explain why when even saved misunderstanding this principle, will start to read into bible doctrines such as God not being all knowing
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
What part of what man does is not ordained to come to pass? What do you mean by this? I am not sure what you mean by this, can you help me understand, maybe give an example or two?

Is the longsuffering of God dealing with men to be saved, or with God not destroying sinful man until all the sheep get saved?

I am not sure if you conclusion is necessary here
God is sovereign over all of His creation, and nothing happens without Him knowing of it beforehand, but some God direct determines to happen, while other he permits and allows to happen.

And indeed, His patience involves all of His own coming to a Covenant relationship back with Him now
 

Zaatar71

Member
God is sovereign over all of His creation, and nothing happens without Him knowing of it beforehand, but some God direct determines to happen, while other he permits and allows to happen.
When you say nothing happens without Him knowing of it, do you mean things happen that he is only an onlooker, and has no control of those things? Does God use the acts of sinners for His own purpose? When you say, he knows about them, do things happen that God has not determined to happen by the hands of the wicked?
And indeed, His patience involves all of His own coming to a Covenant relationship back with Him now
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
When you say nothing happens without Him knowing of it, do you mean things happen that he is only an onlooker, and has no control of those things? Does God use the acts of sinners for His own purpose? When you say, he knows about them, do things happen that God has not determined to happen by the hands of the wicked?
God does not directly determine and direct cause all that happens, as that would be fatalism, but nothing ever happens that He was not already aware of, and He can choose to step in directly at any time
 
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canadyjd

Well-Known Member

This is just me, but I am more comfortable believing that God is able communicate with us in straightforward manner. If the Holy Spirit says that He is longsuffering, I think He really means that He is longsuffering and if He didn’t really mean it that way, He would have said it differently.

That’s my take. I hope it made sense.
The passage from Roman’s 9 says…

1. God created two types of vessels… vessels of wrath prepared for destruction and vessels of mercy.

Can we agree on that?

2. The two vessels have specific purpose… the vessels of wrath are dealt with by God with “longsuffering” (patience) for the purpose of demonstrating God’s glory toward His vessels of mercy.

Can we agree on that?

Your question is a challenge the these scriptural truths… that God created vessels of wrath prepared for destruction and dealt with them in a longsuffering manner.

You seem to be claiming that since God was “longsuffering” or “patient” with these folks, He must not of decreed they were created for destruction, even though that is exactly what the passage says.

If that is your point, then I would point you back to the passage where the question is asked, “why does He still find fault.. who can resist His will?”

You will find your answer in that passage.

Peace to you
 

Reynolds

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Romans 9:22-24 - What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: and that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?

Longsuffering - having or showing patience in spite of troubles, especially those caused by other people.

If the assertion is that God has decreed all things that come to pass, including the existence of vessels of wrath, how does it logically make sense that He is longsuffering with them?
The passage says He is only long-suffering to the vessels of wrath because somehow being long-suffering with them makes known the riches of His mercy in His chosen vessels.
 

Zaatar71

Member
God does not directly determine and direct cause all that happens, as that would be fatalism, but nothing ever happens that He was not already aware of, and He can choose to step in directly at any time
Is he just aware of the things, or does He use the things done by others, here is what I am asking you;

23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God,
ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:
 

kyredneck

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Exodus Chapter 16

1​

And they took their journey from Elim, and all the congregation of the children of Israel came unto the wilderness of Sin, which is between Elim and Sinai, on the fifteenth day of the second month after their departing out of the land of Egypt.

Exodus Chapter 17

1​

And all the congregation of the children of Israel journeyed from the wilderness of Sin, by their journeys, according to the commandment of Jehovah, and encamped in Rephidim: and there was no water for the people to drink.

Numbers Chapter 33

11​

And they journeyed from the Red Sea, and encamped in the wilderness of Sin.


You do know that the Wilderness of Sin is a geographic location referring to the Wilderness of Sinai, right?

K. What's your point?
 

Baptizo

Active Member
The passage from Roman’s 9 says…

1. God created two types of vessels… vessels of wrath prepared for destruction and vessels of mercy.

Can we agree on that?

I have no problem with what the text says. Where we may disagree is the Calvinist's interpretation that the vessels of wrath and mercy were prepared before the they were born.

2. The two vessels have specific purpose… the vessels of wrath are dealt with by God with “longsuffering” (patience) for the purpose of demonstrating God’s glory toward His vessels of mercy.

Can we agree on that?

I wouldn't agree with the Calvinist's interpretation that "longsuffering" is just a figure of speech. God is perfectly capable of demonstrating his glory to the vessels of mercy while having patience with the vessels of wrath, that they may too become vessels of mercy.

If that is your point, then I would point you back to the passage where the question is asked, “why does He still find fault.. who can resist His will?”

I find no fault in God deciding to elect one nation over another, to bring about spiritual blessings and the coming of the Messiah.
 

Baptizo

Active Member
The passage says He is only long-suffering to the vessels of wrath because somehow being long-suffering with them makes known the riches of His mercy in His chosen vessels.

Except that the vessels of mercy were at one time vessels of wrath and God was patient with them.

Ephesians 2:3
Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.
 
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